Deck 33: Specific Adaptive Immunity

Question 1

A vaccination is a good example of

A) naturally acquired passive immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired active immunity.
D) artificially acquired passive immunity.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following mediates inflammation by producing certain specific cytokines?

A) macrophages
B) T_H1 cells
C) T_H2 cells
D) cytotoxic T cells

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The humoral immune response defends against

A) bacteria.
B) bacterial toxins.
C) viruses.
D) all of the choices

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Each antigen has one antigenic determinant site or epitope.

Question 5

T cells produce and secrete factors which do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but which augment the body's defense mechanisms. These molecules are called

A) antibodies.
B) cytokines.
C) immunogens.
D) augmetins.

Question 6

Adaptive immunity refers to the type of specific immunity that

A) develops after exposure to antigen.
B) can result from transfer of antibodies from one individual to another.
C) can be induced by natural or artificial means.
D) all of the choices

Question 7

When an individual's immune system comes into contact with an appropriate antigenic stimulus during the course of daily activities, this is called

A) naturally acquired passive immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired active immunity.
D) artificially acquired passive immunity.

Question 8

The immune system normally discriminates between __________ antigens.

A) self and nonself
B) B and T cells
C) humoral and cell-mediated
D) primary and secondary response

Question 9

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of

A) CD8.
B) CD4.
C) CD19.
D) all of the choices

Question 10

Class II major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on all of the following types of cells except

A) T cells.
B) B cells.
C) macrophages.
D) dendritic cells.

Question 11

Class I and II MHC molecules

A) consists of a complex of two protein chains.
B) contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket.
C) consists of a complex of two protein chains and contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket.
D) neither consists of a complex of two protein chains nor contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket.

Question 12

Antibodies can be produced

A) in vivo by natural infections.
B) in vivo by immunizations.
C) in vitro using hybridomas.
D) all of the choices

Question 13

An immune complex resulting from an interaction of antibody with cells or particles which becomes large enough to settle out of solution is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.
B) precipitation reaction.
C) hemagglutination.
D) ouchterlony double diffusion.

Question 14

Botulinum antitoxin produced in a horse and given to a human suffering from botulism food poisoning is an example of

A) naturally acquired passive immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired active immunity.
D) artificially acquired passive immunity.

Question 15

T cells attack

A) host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms.
B) transplanted tissue cells from one host to another.
C) cancer cells.
D) all of the choices

Question 16

The major histocompatibility complex directs the production of proteins called

A) class I.
B) class II.
C) class IV.
D) both class I and class II.
E) both class I and class IV.

Question 17

Most antigens are monovalent.

Question 18

The transfer of antibodies in breast milk is a good example of

A) naturally acquired passive immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired active immunity.
D) artificially acquired passive immunity.

Question 19

Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on ____________ cells.

A) all nucleated
B) antigen-presenting
C) all anucleated
D) none of the choices

Question 20

Penicillin is a good example of a hapten.

Question 21

The T cell receptor is comprised of

A) alpha and beta protein chains.
B) a delta protein chain.
C) a gamma protein chain.
D) all of the choices

Question 22

Which type(s) of antigen-presenting cell can activate T cells?

A) macrophages
B) B cells
C) dendritic cells
D) all of the choices

Question 23

In humans, the antigen-presenting cells include all of the following except

A) eosinophils.
B) dendritic cells.
C) macrophages.
D) B cells.

Question 24

When a presented antigen fragment interacts with the T cell receptor of a helper T cell, the co-receptor that must also participate to finalize recognition is

A) CD4.
B) CD8.
C) MHC I.
D) all of these.

Question 25

During activation of a T cell, the cytokine it produces to stimulate its own proliferation is

A) interferon gamma.
B) interleukin 1.
C) interleukin 2.
D) tumor necrosis factor.

Question 26

Superantigens cause

A) specific activation of phagocytic cells.
B) stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines.
C) specific activation of phagocytic cells and stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines.
D) none of the choices

Question 27

If a T cell that has received signal 1 for activation fails to also receive signal 2 it may become

A) anergic.
B) apoptotic.
C) anuclear.
D) cancerous.

Question 28

The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there

A) secretion of antibody.
B) a precommitted lymphocyte.
C) a clonal selection mechanism.
D) the development of memory cells.

Question 29

T cells are so named because they mature in the thyroid.

Question 30

Superantigens exert their damaging effects by

A) forming harmful antibody aggregates.
B) causing the massive and non-specific release of cytokines by T cells.
C) killing large numbers of phagocytic cells.
D) all of the choices

Question 31

One plasma cell can synthesize more than __________ antibody molecules per hour.

A) 10,000
B) 100,000
C) 1,000,000
D) 10,000,000

Question 32

Most known superantigens are glycolipids.

Question 33

Which of the following is not true concerning T-independent B cell activation?

A) affinity maturation does not occur
B) no B memory cells are formed
C) B cell receptors are not involved in activation
D) all of the choices are true

Question 34

The variable domain of antibody molecules

A) interacts with various cells of the immune system.
B) binds target antigen.
C) interacts with phagocytic cells.
D) interacts with the first component of the complement system.

Question 35

T-cell receptors can only recognize antigens on the surfaces of antigen-presenting cells; they cannot bind free antigen.

Question 36

Lipopolysaccharides are a common class of T-dependent antigens.

Question 37

Molecules that stimulate T cells to proliferate nonspecifically, causing the release of massive quantities of cytokines, which, in turn, can lead to tissue damage are called __________.

Question 38

Cytotoxic T cells destroy target cells by

A) direct killing mediated by activated oxygen species.
B) the perforin pathway.
C) the CD95 pathway.
D) both direct killing mediated by activated oxygen species and the perforin pathway.
E) both the perforin pathway and the CD95 pathway.

Question 39

Antigens that depend on the function of T-helper cells are called __________ antigens.

Question 40

B cells are more effective than macrophages in presenting antigens to activate T cells when

A) macrophages are in short supply.
B) antigen concentrations are high.
C) antigen concentrations are low.
D) none of the choices

Question 41

The specific regions within the variable region of an antibody that are responsible for antibody diversity and antigen specificity are called __________ regions.

Question 42

The class of immunoglobulin transferred from mother to infant during breast-feeding is

A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgG.
D) IgM.

Question 43

A type of antibody light chain is the ___________ chain.

A) omega
B) lambda
C) delta
D) alpha

Question 44

Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses?

A) shorter lag phase
B) higher antibody titer
C) higher antibody affinity
D) all of the choices

Question 45

Which of the following is not a function of the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin molecule?

A) binding to host cells including some cells of the immune system and some phagocytic cells
B) binding to a component of the complement system
C) binding to the antigen
D) all of the choices

Question 46

The secondary immune response is typically stronger than the primary response because __________ during the secondary response.

A) all classes of immunoglobulins are active
B) both B and T cells are activated
C) the antigen is weakened by the primary response
D) a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed

Question 47

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most abundant in serum?

A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgM

Question 48

Which of the following prevents some bacteria from adhering to mucosal surfaces?

A) IgD
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE

Question 49

Matching
1) log phase
2) decline phase
3) plateau phase
4) lag phase
A. This phase directly follows a primary challenge with an antigen.
B. The antibody titer stabilizes.
C. The antibody titer rises quickly.
D. Antibodies are naturally metabolized.

Question 50

The only immunoglobulin class with members able to cross the placental barrier is

A) IgA.
B) IgM.
C) IgG.
D) IgE.

Question 51

The protein chains in a complete antibody molecule are connected to each other by ___________ bonds.

A) peptide
B) ionic
C) disulfide
D) none of the choices

Question 52

If the clonal selection theory is correct, there exists at least one lymphocyte capable of synthesizing an antibody specific to each antigen prior to exposure to the antigen.

Question 53

Matching
1) IgG
2) IgD
3) IgM
4) IgA
A. accounts for about 10% of the immunoglobulin pool
B. the major immunoglobulin in human serum
C. has special features associated with secretory mucosal surfaces
D. found in trace amounts in the serum

Question 54

In an antibody molecule, each loop of approximately 60 amino acids is called a __________.

Question 55

Which enzyme inserts nucleotides at the V-J junction to add further diversity?

A) DNA polymerase
B) the RAG enzymes
C) reverse transcriptase
D) terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Question 56

The changeover in production from IgM to IgG by an activated B cell is called a __________ __________ event.

Question 57

The __________ chains are structurally distinct for each immunoglobulin class.

Question 58

Which of the following function(s) as the B cell antigen receptor?

A) IgG
B) monomeric IgM
C) IgE
D) IgA

Question 59

Pentameric IgM activates complement up to 20-fold more effectively than does the hexameric form of IgM.

Question 60

In an antibody molecule, the __________ region mediates binding to host cells.

Question 61

Type III hypersensitivity conditions such as arthritis involve

A) the activation of mast cells.
B) a cytotoxic reaction.
C) delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions.
D) the formation of immune complexes.
E) all of the choices

Question 62

Which of the following is not normally capable of virus neutralization?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgM

Question 63

Which of the following antibodies is (are) involved in opsonization?

A) IgG₁
B) IgG₃
C) IgD
D) only IgG₁ and IgG₃

Question 64

Which of the following is (are) involved with an antigen binding to an antibody?

A) folding of both the V(H) and V(L) regions
B) amino acids and the antigen's epitope determinant
C) noncovalent bonds
D) all of these

Question 65

Clonal deletion that removes lymphocytes that recognize any self antigens that are present is known as

A) positive selection.
B) negative selection.
C) neutralization.
D) none of the choices

Question 66

Tumor cells of the immune system that produce large quantities of antibodies and can be readily cultivated are called

A) myeloma cells.
B) monoclonal antibodies.
C) lymphoma.
D) all of the choices

Question 67

Acquired immune tolerance is the body's ability to produce T cells and antibodies against antigens such as microbial antigens, while "tolerating" _________ ________.

Question 68

The inability of a virus to bind to its target cell as a result of antibody binding to the virus is referred to as

A) toxin neutralization.
B) adherence prevention.
C) viral neutralization.
D) cytotoxicity.

Question 69

T-cell tolerance induced in the thymus and B-cell tolerance in the bone marrow is called peripheral tolerance.

Question 70

Type _________ hypersensitivity involves delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions.

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV

Question 71

Which type of hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated?

A) Type IV
B) Type III
C) Type II
D) Type I

Question 72

Type ___________ hypersensitivity is generally called a cytolytic or cytotoxic reaction because it results in the destruction of host cells, either by lysis or toxic mediators.

Question 73

__________ anaphylaxis is referred to as an atopic allergy.

Question 74

Autoimmunity and autoimmune disease are both most often fatal.

Question 75

Which of the following is/are true about monoclonal antibodies?

A) they are made by hybridizing a myeloma cell and an activated B cell
B) they recognize a specific epitope
C) they are a useful tool in disease diagnosis
D) all of the choices

Question 76

Antibodies

A) can bind to an immunogen.
B) can target the immunogen for destruction.
C) are part of the nonspecific immune response.
D) both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction.
E) both can bind to an immunogen and are part of the nonspecific immune response.