Deck 28: Psychological Disorders Part 2

Question 1

The cognitive approach to explaining the etiology of depressive disorders maintains that people who are more likely to develop depressive disorders tend to do all of the following EXCEPT

A) attribute their setbacks to personal flaws instead of to situational factors.
B) ruminate about, or dwell over, their depression.
C) misinterpret harmless situations as threatening.
D) have a pessimistic explanatory style.

Answer 1

misinterpret harmless situations as threatening.

Question 2

Recent research has revealed that the ____ is about 8-10% smaller in depressed individuals compared to non-depressed individuals.

A) prefrontal cortex
B) hypothalamus
C) hippocampus
D) corpus callosum

Answer 2

hippocampus

Question 3

Studies that have evaluated concordance rates for various mood disorders have found

A) only unipolar disorder has a genetic component.
B) the influence of genetic factors appears to be stronger for unipolar disorders than for bipolar disorders.
C) the influence of genetic factors is the same for both bipolar and unipolar disorders.
D) the influence of genetic factors appears to be stronger for bipolar disorders than for unipolar disorders.

Answer 3

the influence of genetic factors appears to be stronger for bipolar disorders than for unipolar disorders.

Question 4

Recent studies suggest that genetic vulnerability

A) may play a larger role in women's depression than in men's.
B) may play a larger role in men's depression than in women's.
C) plays an equal role in both men's and women's depression.
D) does not play a role in either women's or men's depression.

Question 5

In the Featured Study "Does Negative Thinking Cause Depression" participants were first evaluated for ____ and then repeatedly evaluated over two years to determine if they were exhibiting ____.

A) depression; negative thinking
B) negative thinking; depression
C) depression; positive thinking
D) positive thinking; depression

Question 6

Seligman's learned helplessness theory concerning the etiology of depression emphasizes the role of

A) biological factors associated with genetic predispositions.
B) interpersonal factors involving inadequate social skills.
C) cognitive factors involving unreasonably optimistic expectations.
D) cognitive factors involving a pessimistic explanatory style.

Question 7

Mood disorders have been associated with abnormal levels of the neurotransmitters

A) GABA and serotonin.
B) serotonin and norepinephrine.
C) norepinephrine and dopamine.
D) dopamine and GABA.

Question 8

Research concerning the etiology of mood disorders suggests that the influence of genetic factors

A) is stronger for bipolar disorder than for major depressive disorder.
B) is stronger for major depressive disorder than for bipolar disorder.
C) is equally strong for major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder.
D) is not associated with bipolar disorder.

Question 9

Sarah is a 23-year-old woman whose sister has recently been diagnosed with a depressive disorder. Jacob is a 25-year-old man whose brother has recently been diagnosed with a depressive disorder. Based on studies which have investigated genetic vulnerability, you should predict that

A) Sarah is at a higher risk than Jacob for developing a depressive disorder.
B) Jacob is at a higher risk than Sarah for developing a depressive disorder.
C) both Sarah and Jacob are equally likely to develop a depressive disorder.
D) neither Sarah nor Jacob is likely to develop a depressive disorder.

Question 10

According to Susan Nolen-Hoeksema depressed people who tend to ruminate about their depression

A) remain depressed longer.
B) recover from their depression quicker.
C) attribute their setbacks to their personal flaws instead of situational factors.
D) attribute their setbacks to situational factors and not to their personal flaws.

Question 11

The Featured Study "Does Negative Thinking Cause Depression" found that participants who

A) exhibited a negative cognitive style were more likely to develop depression.
B) exhibited a negative cognitive style were less likely to develop depression.
C) were depressed were more likely to develop a negative cognitive style.
D) were depressed were less likely to develop a negative cognitive style.

Question 12

Inadequate social skills, and therefore a decrease in sources of social support, have been suggested as factors that contribute to the development of

A) anxiety disorders.
B) dissociative disorders.
C) schizophrenic disorders.
D) depressive disorders.

Question 13

Correlations between mood disorders and a variety of structural abnormalities in the brain suggest that reduced volume in the ____ is related to depression.

A) amygdala
B) hypothalamus
C) hippocampus
D) thalamus

Question 14

Darla was fired from her most recent job. Based on Seligman's investigations into the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression, Darla will be MOST prone to depression if she attributes her firing to

A) her lack of ability to do her job successfully.
B) the bad mood that her boss was in on the day she was fired.
C) a general downturn in the economy which resulted in massive layoffs.
D) her coworker who started a number of false rumors about Darla.

Question 15

Jacobs maintains that depression occurs when

A) major life stress causes neurochemical reactions that suppresses neurogenisis.
B) major life stress causes neurochemical reactions that encourages neurogenisis.
C) major life stress causes neurochemical reactions that suppresses dopamine action at the synapse.
D) major life stress causes neurochemical reactions that suppresses norepinephrine action at the synapse.

Question 16

According to Seligman people that exhibit a ____ explanatory style are especially vulnerable to depression.

A) pessimistic
B) narcissistic
C) histrionic
D) ruminative

Question 17

In his investigations of the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression, Seligman found that people with a pessimistic explanatory style are especially vulnerable to depression. These individuals tend to attribute their setbacks to ____, and draw ____ conclusions about their personal inadequacies.

A) situational factors; narrow, specific
B) personal flaws; narrow, specific
C) situational factors; global, far-reaching
D) personal flaws; global, far-reaching

Question 18

It is safest to conclude that after 40 years of research effort, the neurochemical bases of mood disorders

A) is a fiction.
B) will soon be discovered.
C) has been found.
D) remains mysterious.

Question 19

Jose has a psychological disorder, and his doctor has prescribed a drug that affects both the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in Jose's nervous system. Based on this information, it is MOST likely that Jose is being treated for

A) an anxiety disorder.
B) a schizophrenic disorder.
C) a somatoform disorder.
D) depression.

Question 20

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in mood disorders?

A) GABA
B) serotonin
C) dopamine
D) endorphins

Question 21

The class of disorders that are marked by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech and deterioration of adaptive behavior is known as

A) anxiety disorder.
B) personality disorders.
C) schizophrenic disorders.
D) dissociative disorders.

Question 22

The central feature or symptom of schizophrenic disorders involves

A) disturbed or irrational thought processes.
B) an absence of or flattening of emotions.
C) hallucinations.
D) a noticeable deterioration in the quality of routine functioning in work, social relations, and personal care.

Question 23

Lauren Alloy and her colleagues investigated the link between negative thinking and vulnerability to depression. Their study involved a group of first-year college students who had no prior history of depression. Over a 2.5-year period, they found that approximately ____ of those students with a negative cognitive style experienced MINOR depressive episodes, compared to approximately ____ of those students who did not have a negative cognitive style.

A) 40 percent; 5 percent
B) 10 percent; 1 percent
C) 10 percent; 40 percent
D) 95 percent; 20 percent

Question 24

One symptom of schizophrenic disorders involves an individual having false beliefs that are maintained even though the beliefs clearly are out of touch with reality. These beliefs are referred to as

A) illusions.
B) hallucinations.
C) delusions.
D) faulty perceptions.

Question 25

Cooper is an auto mechanic at a local garage. However, he is convinced that his phone line is tapped and all the rooms in his house have listening devices planted, so that enemy agents can learn all his secret conversations. He never takes the same route to work two days in a row, to prevent the enemy agents from following him and learning where he works. In this case, it appears that Cooper is experiencing

A) hallucinations.
B) obsessions.
C) delusions of persecution.
D) loosening of associations.

Question 26

The psychological disorder characterized by a fragmentation of thought processes or a "split mind" is

A) bipolar disorder.
B) multiple personality.
C) dissociative identity disorder.
D) schizophrenia.

Question 27

Schizophrenic disorders are a class of psychological disorders characterized by

A) emotional disturbances of varied kinds that may spill over to disrupt physical, perceptual, social, and thought processes.
B) delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and deterioration of adaptive behavior.
C) physical ailments that cannot be fully explained by organic conditions.
D) feelings of excessive apprehension and worry.

Question 28

A delusion is

A) a false belief that is maintained even though it is not supported by reality.
B) the consequence of loosening of associations.
C) a perceptual experience without a sensation.
D) the major symptom associated with dissociative disorders.

Question 29

In the Featured Study, Lauren Alloy and her colleagues investigated the link between negative thinking and vulnerability to depression. Their study involved a group of first-year college students who had no prior history of depression. Over a 2.5-year period, they found that ____ of those students with a negative cognitive style developed a MAJOR depressive disorder, compared to ____ of those students who did not have a negative cognitive style.

A) 98 percent; 16 percent
B) 12 percent; 33 percent
C) 23 percent; 12 percent
D) 17 percent; 1 percent

Question 30

A person who perceives stimuli that aren't there is said to have

A) hallucinations.
B) delusions.
C) obsessions.
D) illusions.

Question 31

Kevin hears voices singing even though none are present. Kevin suffers from

A) hallucinations.
B) delusions.
C) obsessions.
D) loosening of associations.

Question 32

Which of the following statements is LEAST accurate?

A) Correlations have been found between poor social skills and depression.
B) Depressed people tend to be evaluated negatively by others.
C) There is no relationship between depression and environmental stress.
D) Depressed people gravitate towards people who reinforce their negative views of themselves.

Question 33

Norton hears disembodied voices all the time that give him strange commands. Yesterday he finished building a concrete landing pad in his backyard for a UFO. The voices have told him that the spacecraft will land over the weekend and take him to a more advanced civilization 27 light years from earth. In this case, the voices that Norton hears are

A) delusions.
B) obsessions.
C) compulsions.
D) hallucinations.

Question 34

Ivy excitedly tells you that she has been invited to sing at the coronation of the new King of Cyprus. You find this difficult to believe, considering Ivy sings terribly and Cyprus has an elected government, not a monarchy. Ivy's statements are clearly out of touch with reality. It appears that Ivy is experiencing

A) delusions of grandeur.
B) hallucinations.
C) compulsions.
D) loosening of associations.

Question 35

A person who maintains bizarre, false beliefs that have no basis in reality is said to have

A) hallucinations.
B) delusions.
C) obsessions.
D) illusions.

Question 36

Schizophrenia is characterized by

A) emotional disturbances and high levels of anxiety.
B) the presence of two or more distinct personalities.
C) loss of memory or personal identity.
D) a fragmentation of thought processes.

Question 37

Abby was watching a documentary on some of the horrors of the Viet Nam War. Even when she saw soldiers being blown up after stepping on land mines, she showed no emotional reaction or response. In this case, Abby is displaying symptoms of

A) catatonic stupor.
B) blunted or flat affect.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) conversion disorder.

Question 38

Johnny believes he is the president of the United States. If Johnny isn't the president, his false belief represents

A) a hallucination.
B) a compulsion.
C) a delusion.
D) an obsession.

Question 39

The evidence available today suggests

A) a moderately strong link between stress and the onset of mood disorders.
B) a very weak link between stress and the onset of mood disorders.
C) no link between stress and the onset of mood disorders.
D) an inverse link between stress and the onset of mood disorders.

Question 40

The basic problem in the mood disorders is disturbed ____; the basic problem in the schizophrenic disorders is disturbed ____.

A) thought; emotion
B) perception; thought
C) thought; perception
D) emotion; thought

Question 41

Harold sits all day alone on a park bench, babbling incoherently and giggling to himself. Harold would MOST likely be diagnosed as having

A) paranoid schizophrenia.
B) catatonic schizophrenia.
C) disorganized schizophrenia.
D) undifferentiated schizophrenia.

Question 42

Individuals with schizophrenic disorders tend to show a greater responsiveness to treatment when

A) positive and negative symptoms are both evident at the same time.
B) the predominant symptoms include behavioral excesses or peculiarities.
C) positive and negative symptoms alternate throughout the schizophrenic episodes.
D) the predominant symptoms include behavioral deficits.

Question 43

A two-category scheme for classification of schizophrenia has been suggested as an alternative to the older four categories. These two categories are based on

A) presence or absence of delusions.
B) predominance of positive or negative symptoms.
C) early or late age of onset.
D) slow or fast developing symptoms.

Question 44

Nancy Andreasen has proposed a classification scheme for schizophrenia that divides schizophrenic disorders into two categories, based on the predominance of negative versus positive symptoms. Results from research studies which have investigated this method of classification suggest that most patients

A) exhibit mainly positive symptoms.
B) alternate between positive and negative symptoms.
C) exhibit mainly negative symptoms.
D) exhibit both types of symptoms.

Question 45

The common or general symptoms of schizophrenic disorders include all of the following EXCEPT

A) disturbed emotions.
B) deterioration of adaptive behavior.
C) hallucinations.
D) structural abnormalities in the brain.

Question 46

Rick believes that his dog is really his sister who was given up for adoption by his mother 30 years ago. Rick's belief is

A) an illusion.
B) a hallucination.
C) a delusion.
D) a faulty perception.

Question 47

The subtype of schizophrenia marked by a striking impairment of psychomotor activity ranging from muscular rigidity to random motor activity is known as

A) hebephrenic.
B) disorganized.
C) catatonic.
D) paranoid.

Question 48

Tyberius wears a hat 24 hours a day and becomes extremely agitated if anyone tries to remove it. He is convinced that small robots made of Lego blocks nibbled his ears off while he was sleeping, and if he removes his hat his brains will leak out through the holes in the sides of his head. Tyberius' delusion is the type of delusion typically seen in

A) catatonic schizophrenia.
B) paranoid schizophrenia.
C) disorganized schizophrenia.
D) undifferentiated schizophrenia.

Question 49

Roy alternates between periods in which he remains motionless and seems oblivious to his environment, and periods of hyperactivity and frenzied excitement. Roy would MOST likely be diagnosed as having

A) paranoid schizophrenia.
B) catatonic schizophrenia.
C) disorganized schizophrenia.
D) undifferentiated schizophrenia.

Question 50

Negative symptoms in schizophrenia include

A) behavioral deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech.
B) behavioral excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behavior.
C) antisocial behaviors such as violence and rage reactions.
D) dissociative behaviors and the emergence of multiple personalities.

Question 51

Larry frequently hears his daughter's stuffed animals talking about him when he is in the hallway outside his daughter's bedroom; Larry is experiencing

A) delusions.
B) hallucinations.
C) disturbed emotions.
D) irrational thought.

Question 52

Susan has withdrawn from social contact with others. She spends most of her time alone in her bedroom. She has stopped going to her job and no longer talks to her family on the phone. Additionally, Susan neglects her personal hygiene and rarely bathes, brushes her teeth, or changes clothes. Susan's behavior BEST illustrates which symptom of schizophrenia?

A) deterioration of adaptive behavior
B) hallucinations
C) disturbed emotions
D) irrational thought

Question 53

Hope often sits for hours in extremely rigid positions; during these times she seems to lose contact with the external world and does not respond to people who try to speak to her. At other times she becomes extremely hyperactive and rambles on incoherently. Hope's symptoms are MOST consistent with those seen in

A) paranoid schizophrenia.
B) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
C) disorganized schizophrenia.
D) catatonic schizophrenia.

Question 54

People who are clearly schizophrenic but who cannot be placed into any of the three main categories for schizophrenic disorders are said to have

A) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
B) borderline schizophrenia.
C) disorganized schizophrenia.
D) schizophrenia in remission.

Question 55

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate concerning the onset of schizophrenia?

A) The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset.
B) The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 45 and on).
C) The symptoms usually emerge during adolescence or early adulthood.
D) The onset of schizophrenia is spread evenly across almost all age groups.

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT a type of schizophrenia according to DSM-IV?

A) paranoid
B) undifferentiated
C) disorganized
D) frenetic

Question 57

Jill will sit in one position for long periods of time, evidencing muscular rigidity. Jill is exhibiting symptoms of

A) paranoid schizophrenia.
B) catatonic schizophrenia.
C) disorganized schizophrenia.
D) undifferentiated schizophrenia.

Question 58

Positive symptoms in schizophrenia include

A) behavioral deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech.
B) behavioral excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behavior.
C) compliant behavior such as medication monitoring.
D) dissociative behaviors and the emergence of multiple personalities.

Question 59

It is fairly typical for an individual with a schizophrenic disorder to exhibit

A) inappropriate emotions.
B) a lack of or flattening of emotions.
C) either a lack of or inappropriate emotions.
D) at times a lack of emotions and at other times inappropriate emotions.

Question 60

Tony believes that he is Thomas Edison, and he is convinced that his neighbors are spies who are trying to steal his inventions. He believes the neighbors break into his house and search for plans for new inventions when he is not home. Tony's symptoms are MOST consistent with those seen in

A) paranoid schizophrenia.
B) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
C) catatonic schizophrenia.
D) disorganized schizophrenia.

Question 61

The subtype or category of schizophrenia that is characterized by a severe deterioration of adaptive behavior with symptoms of irrational thought, emotional indifference, and social withdrawal is

A) disorganized schizophrenia.
B) paranoid schizophrenia.
C) catatonic schizophrenia.
D) undifferentiated schizophrenia.

Question 62

Enos and Amir are both currently 30 years old. Enos' biological mother has schizophrenia, but neither of his adoptive parents have the disorder. In contrast, neither of Amir's biological parents have schizophrenia, however his adoptive mother has schizophrenia. Based on research that has investigated the role of genetic vulnerability in schizophrenic disorders, you should predict that

A) Enos is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Amir has an increased risk of developing schizophrenia.
B) Amir is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Enos has an increased risk of developing schizophrenia.
C) Enos and Amir are both at high risk for developing schizophrenia.
D) neither Enos nor Amir is likely to develop schizophrenia.

Question 63

The subtype or category of schizophrenia that can be considered a miscellaneous or "left-over" subtype for individuals who are clearly schizophrenic, but do not show specific symptoms associated with the other subtypes is

A) catatonic schizophrenia.
B) paranoid schizophrenia.
C) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
D) disorganized schizophrenia.

Question 64

A person who has a relatively favorable prognosis for recovery from a schizophrenic disorder would tend to exhibit all of the following EXCEPT

A) a gradual onset of symptoms.
B) onset of symptoms at a later age.
C) a relatively healthy and supportive family situation.
D) a relatively good social adjustment before the onset of the disorder.

Question 65

The low recovery rate of people with schizophrenia reflects

A) the biochemical nature of schizophrenia.
B) the genetic nature of schizophrenia.
C) the lack of a strong social network of people who suffer the disorder.
D) the poor to mediocre quality of mental health care in many countries.

Question 66

The primary characteristic of paranoid schizophrenia is

A) the presence of an idiosyncratic mixture of schizophrenic symptoms.
B) the presence of delusions of persecution and grandeur.
C) severe deterioration of adaptive behavior.
D) motor disturbances ranging from muscular rigidity to random motor activity.

Question 67

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?

A) Concordance rates for schizophrenia are near 100 percent for identical twins.
B) Schizophrenia is caused by a single recessive gene that must be contributed by both parents.
C) Some people inherit a polygenetically transmitted vulnerability to schizophrenia.
D) Concordance rates for schizophrenia are the same for fraternal twins and identical twins.

Question 68

A recent approach to describing variations in schizophrenic disorders focuses on

A) the presence or absence of irrational thought.
B) the presence or absence of maladaptive behavior.
C) the presence or absence of disturbed emotions.
D) the presence of positive or negative symptoms.

Question 69

According to a recent approach to describing subtypes of schizophrenic disorders, an individual experiencing hallucinations, delusions, and hyperactive behavior would be said to exhibit

A) negative symptoms.
B) positive symptoms.
C) perceptual symptoms.
D) behavioral symptoms.

Question 70

Schizophrenic disorders usually emerge during

A) childhood.
B) adolescence or early adulthood.
C) between the ages of 40 and 50.
D) in the age group over 60.

Question 71

A patient with schizophrenia tends to have the most favorable prognosis when

A) the onset of the disorder is gradual.
B) the onset occurs at an early age.
C) the proportion of negative symptoms is relatively low.
D) the patient's family is high in expressed emotion.

Question 72

The presence of structural abnormalities in the brain that are assumed to reflect deterioration of brain tissue has been associated with

A) mood disorders.
B) schizophrenic disorders.
C) anxiety disorders.
D) somatoform disorders.

Question 73

Mark is hospitalized as a result of schizophrenia. He constantly rambles incoherently about a variety of topics and does not interact with the other patients or hospital staff. Mark has delusions that his right arm is slowly shrinking and that he is growing a third eye on the back of his head. MOST likely, Mark is diagnosed with

A) disorganized schizophrenia.
B) paranoid schizophrenia.
C) catatonic schizophrenia.
D) undifferentiated schizophrenia.

Question 74

Children born to two schizophrenic parents have what likelihood of developing the disorder themselves?

A) Less then a 17% chance
B) About a 46% chance
C) About a 66% chance
D) Less then a 35% chance

Question 75

The primary symptom of catatonic schizophrenia is

A) the presence of an idiosyncratic mixture of schizophrenic symptoms.
B) the presence of delusions of persecution and grandeur.
C) severe deterioration of adaptive behavior.
D) motor disturbances ranging from muscular rigidity to random motor activity.

Question 76

Lucille believes that since she is pregnant with "the son of God" a large conspiracy of people are trying to prevent the birth. She thinks her family, friends, neighbors, and even her doctor are all part of the conspiracy. Lucille is MOST likely to be diagnosed with

A) disorganized schizophrenia.
B) paranoid schizophrenia.
C) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
D) catatonic schizophrenia.

Question 77

At this time, one of the major neurotransmitters that has been linked to schizophrenia is

A) norepinephrine.
B) dopamine.
C) GABA.
D) acetylcholine.

Question 78

Lenny is diagnosed with schizophrenia. He will often remain completely motionless for long periods of time. He almost looks as if he is imitating a store mannequin or a statue. Lenny's behavior is MOST consistent with

A) disorganized schizophrenia.
B) paranoid schizophrenia.
C) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
D) catatonic schizophrenia.

Question 79

Research concerning the etiology of schizophrenic disorders has implicated excessive activity of the neurotransmitter(s)

A) dopamine.
B) GABA.
C) norepinephrine.
D) serotonin and epinephrine.

Question 80

Mayra has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed a drug that affects the levels of dopamine in her nervous system. Based on this information, it is MOST likely that Mayra is being treated for

A) a schizophrenic disorder.
B) an anxiety disorder.
C) a dissociative disorder.
D) a somatoform disorder.