Deck 29: Clinical Virology

Question 1

Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infections, except

A) acute hemorrhagic cystitis.
B) meningitis.
C) acute respiratory distress.
D) epidemic keratoconjunctivitis.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

The genome of a virus is composed of?

A) single-stranded DNA.
B) RNA.
C) double-stranded DNA.
D) Any of the above

Answer 2

D

Question 3

The cytopathic effect demonstrating intranuclear inclusions is associated with

A) influenza virus.
B) respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
C) cytomegalovirus (CMV).
D) rotavirus.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

What requirements do viruses have for replication?

A) They must be inside a living cell.
B) They must be in an environment where all the necessary amino acids are present.
C) They can use a dead cell to replicate.
D) They require dead, decaying flesh so that all amino acids and enzymes are present.

Question 5

All the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections, except

A) nucleic acid amplification.
B) direct detection.
C) growth on artificial media.
D) serologic assays.

Question 6

Which serologic marker would be expected to be found in the serum of someone successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B virus (HBV)?

A) Anti-HBe
B) Anti-HBs
C) Anti-HBc
D) Anti-HDV

Question 7

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a

A) coronavirus.
B) picornavirus.
C) enterovirus.
D) paramyxovirus.

Question 8

What is an unsuitable storage temperature for viruses because it allows the development of ice crystals?

A) 4° C
B) -10° C
C) -20° C
D) -70° C

Question 9

Which virus has been linked to Kaposi sarcoma?

A) Human herpesvirus 8
B) CMV
C) Herpes simplex
D) Epstein-Barr

Question 10

What type of genome do herpesviruses have?

A) ssDNA
B) ssRNA
C) dsDNA
D) Both dsDNA and ssRNA

Question 11

What is the correct sequence of viral infection of naked viruses?

A) Attachment, penetration, replication, cell lysis
B) Penetration, attachment, replication, cell lysis
C) Replication, penetration, attachment, cell lysis
D) Penetration, replication, attachment, cell lysis

Question 12

What is the composition of viral transport media?

A) Amies medium with charcoal
B) Isotonic buffered saline with protein
C) Cary-Blair
D) Cooked meat broth

Question 13

Which of the following is the best description of a primary cell culture?

A) It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and in which very little cell division occurs.
B) It is a culture which contains cells that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations.
C) It contains cells with a variable number of chromosomes and can be subcultured indefinitely.
D) This describes the only cells the specimen will be plated on.

Question 14

When is the best time to collect a specimen for culture from a patient suspected of having a viral disease?

A) 1 week after onset of symptoms
B) 5 days after onset of symptoms
C) Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms
D) 2 weeks after onset of symptoms

Question 15

Which of the following describes a diploid cell culture that is not a primary culture?

A) It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, forms a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs.
B) It is a culture of cells that can divide, but passage is limited to about 50 generations.
C) Cells often have variable numbers of chromosomes and can be subcultured indefinitely.
D) This describes the only cells the specimen will be plated on.

Question 16

What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of viral infection?

A) Giant cells
B) Macrophages
C) Glial cells
D) Syncytia

Question 17

Which of the following describes cytopathic effects seen in viral culture?

A) The way viruses kill the infected host cell
B) The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus
C) The tears that the virus puts in an infected host cell's membrane
D) The way the virus lyses the infected cell after all the new virus particles are formed and ready to be released.

Question 18

Presence of this HBV serologic marker indicates a person is highly infectious.

A) HBs antigen
B) HBc antigen
C) Anti-HBs
D) Anti-HBc

Question 19

The noroviruses are most noted for producing

A) upper respiratory tract infections.
B) lower respiratory tract infections.
C) meningitis.
D) gastroenteritis.

Question 20

Which of the following is the description of continuous cell cultures?

A) It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, forms a monolayer, and in which very little cell division occurs.
B) It is a cell culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations.
C) Cells often have variable numbers of chromosomes and can be subcultured indefinitely.
D) This describes the only cells the specimen will be plated on.

Question 21

Which cancer is associated with EBV?

A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
B) Burkitt's lymphoma
C) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) T-cell leukemia

Question 22

Complications of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection include all the following, except

A) acute glomerulonephritis.
B) Reye's syndrome.
C) thrombocytopenia purpura with hemolytic anemia.
D) splenic hemorrhage and rupture.

Question 23

What virus causes genital herpes?

A) Human herpesvirus 6
B) CMV
C) Herpes simplex virus type 2
D) Human herpesvirus

Question 24

What virus is the major cause of the common cold?

A) Rotavirus
B) RSV
C) Rhinovirus
D) Norovirus

Question 25

Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen?

A) Hepatitis A virus
B) Rabies virus
C) Hepatitis C virus
D) Norovirus

Question 26

What is the most common flavivirus infection in the United States?

A) West Nile virus
B) Eastern equine encephalitis virus
C) St. Louis encephalitis (SLE)
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Question 27

What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, and "mad cow" disease?

A) Prion
B) Bacteria
C) Virus
D) Parasite

Question 28

What virus causes the measles?

A) Mumps
B) RSV
C) Herpes virus 6
D) Rubeola virus

Question 29

What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children?

A) Rotavirus
B) Influenza virus
C) Enterovirus
D) RSV

Question 30

Which one of the following viruses causes a viral hemorrhagic fever?

A) Sin Nombre virus
B) Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus
C) Rhabdovirus
D) Ebola virus

Question 31

Poliovirus is transmitted primarily by

A) aerosol.
B) blood.
C) urine.
D) fecal-oral.

Question 32

What virus causes Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?

A) Sin Nombre virus
B) Dobrava virus
C) Junin
D) Lassa

Question 33

Which of the following is true of the virus that causes AIDS?

A) dsDNA genome
B) Present in a number of animal reservoirs
C) Preferentially infects liver tissue
D) Human retrovirus

Question 34

Symptomatic congenital infection with CMV includes all the following symptoms, except

A) hepatosplenomegaly.
B) microcephaly.
C) chorioretinitis.
D) meningitis.

Question 35

What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause?

A) Mumps
B) Genital warts
C) Chickenpox
D) Rubella

Question 36

What viral genus causes rabies?

A) Lyssavirus
B) Lassa virus
C) Marburg virus
D) Calicivirus

Question 37

What is a prion?

A) Protein subunit of a viral capsid
B) Uncovered infectious RNA molecule
C) A proteinaceous infectious particle
D) A lipopolysaccharide infectious particle

Question 38

What type of cancer is associated with human papilloma virus (HPV)?

A) Lung
B) Ovarian
C) Skin
D) Cervical

Question 39

What is the most common virus isolated from infants with lower respiratory infections and causes croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia?

A) RSV
B) Adenovirus
C) Rotavirus
D) Norovirus

Question 40

What virus is the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in the world?

A) Ebola virus
B) Japanese encephalitis (JE) virus
C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus
D) Eastern equine encephalitis virus

Question 41

All of the following are identifiable viral agents of gastroenteritis, except

A) Norwalk.
B) rotavirus.
C) enteric adenoviruses.
D) CMV.

Question 42

What virus causes immune suppression in the host by targeting and destroying the host's CD4+ T cells?

A) HIV
B) Hepatitis B
C) Epstein-Barr
D) CMV

Question 43

Infection with CMV in nonimmune pregnant women can cause

A) misshapen limbs.
B) congenital heart defects.
C) liver problems.
D) microencephalopathy.

Question 44

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal-oral route?

A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D

Question 45

How is hepatitis B transmitted?

A) Contaminated food and water
B) Blood and body fluids
C) Respiratory droplets
D) Airborne

Question 46

Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a liver transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer?

A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis D
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E

Question 47

The classic example of a bite-wound infection is

A) rabies.
B) varicella zoster.
C) infectious mononucleosus.
D) Ebola virus.

Question 48

The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with HBV and HIV is

A) mucous membranes.
B) inhalation.
C) ingestion.
D) needlestick.