Deck 5: Cell Division

Question 1

The mitotic stage of cell division consists of

A) DNA synthesis and DNA degradation.
B) mitosis and cytokinesis.
C) duplication and division.
D) cell growth and cell death.
E) meiosis and mitosis.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Following a cut or scrape, which process repairs your skin?

A) meiosis
B) meiosis and mitosis
C) mitosis
D) mitosis and apoptosis
E) apoptosis

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following proteins would you expect to be a coded for by a proto-oncogene?

A) a growth factor receptor
B) a DNA repair protein
C) a protein involved with the G₁ checkpoint
D) an enzyme involved with apoptosis
E) a DNA replication protein

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Upon examination, a cell is found to have twice as much DNA as the normal diploid state but is no longer in the process of replicating the DNA. All of the DNA is found within a single nucleus. Which phase of the cell cycle is this cell in?

A) M
B) S
C) G₁
D) G₂
E) cytokinesis

Question 5

Technically, mitosis refers to nuclear division and not cytoplasmic division.

Question 6

Which type of genes, when abnormally activated, can result in cancer?

A) tumor suppressor genes
B) apoptosis initiator genes
C) proto-oncogenes
D) DNA repair protein genes
E) apoptosis executioner genes

Question 7

Proteins that promote the cell cycle and prevent apoptosis are encoded by

A) proto-oncogenes.
B) caspase genes.
C) DNA repair genes.
D) tumor suppressor genes.
E) cyclin genes.

Question 8

The cell cycle consists of

A) mitosis and interphase.
B) meiosis and interphase.
C) prophase and interphase.
D) metaphase and interphase.
E) changes from a haploid to a diploid state.

Question 9

During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?

A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) interphase
D) telophase
E) mitosis

Question 10

Growth factors that are transported through the blood play what role in the cell cycle?

A) an internal signal that tells the cell to stop dividing and repair its DNA
B) an internal signal that functions as an executioner
C) an internal signal to tell the cell which stage of the cell cycle to enter next
D) an external signal to tell the cell how long it should spend in each phase of the cell cycle
E) an external signal to tell the cell whether or not to divide

Question 11

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the cell cycle?

A) S-M-G₁-G₂
B) S-M-G₂-G₁
C) S-G₁-G₁-M
D) G₁-S-G₂-M
E) S-G₁-M-G₂

Question 12

When does apoptosis occur?

A) during development
B) during interphase
C) during mitosis
D) during meiosis
E) during injury repair

Question 13

Which of the following proteins would you expect to be a coded for by a proto-oncogene?

A) a growth factor receptor
B) a DNA repair protein
C) a protein involved with the G₁ checkpoint
D) an enzyme involved with apoptosis
E) a DNA replication protein

Question 14

During interphase

A) the cell begins to die.
B) the cell rounds up and detaches from its neighbors.
C) two nuclei split.
D) the cell is at rest.
E) hereditary material duplicates itself.

Question 15

The only function of apoptosis is to destroy healthy cells when they become damaged or infected.

Question 16

Which of the following correctly describes apoptosis?

A) cells flatten out
B) cells adhere more closely to their neighbors
C) nucleus fragments
D) plasma membrane becomes thicker and more dense
E) the cell divides into two daughter cells

Question 17

If a cell stops at the G₁ checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?

A) The DNA has not finished replicating.
B) The chromosomes are not aligned properly.
C) There is DNA damage.
D) The cell is cancerous.
E) There is no problem. The cell normally stops at the G₁ checkpoint.

Question 18

Which of the following best characterizes apoptosis?

A) Apoptosis is bad for an organism.
B) The stages of apoptosis are different in each cell type.
C) Apoptosis happens accidentally to healthy cells.
D) Apoptosis plays a normal role in development and cancer prevention.
E) Apoptosis results in our going from a fertilized egg to trillions of cells.

Question 19

Hormones that deliver a signal to the plasma membrane of target cells are known as

A) cyclins.
B) internal and external signals.
C) growth factors.
D) checkpoints.
E) proto-oncogenes.

Question 20

Which of the following is a correct association?

A) S stage-cell growth
B) M stage-DNA replication
C) interphase-shortest stage of the cell cycle
D) G₁ stage-cytokinesis
E) G₂ stage-the cell synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division

Question 21

Chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers in order to move to and from the metaphase plate.

Question 22

You are looking at a single chromosome in a human being. Assuming there is no crossing over, what is the source of all the genes on this chromosome?

A) mother
B) father
C) either the mother or father
D) a combination of both mother and father
E) it is impossible to tell given this information

Question 23

Which of the following is a correct association?

A) cytokinesis-division of the chromosomes
B) centromere-forms spindle fibers during prophase
C) haploid-having two copies of each chromosome
D) sister chromatids-two identical chromosome strands still attached at the centromere
E) mitosis-when a cell duplicates and then divides twice to reduce chromosome number by half

Question 24

Microtubules found in spindle fibers are capable of assembling and disassembling.

Question 25

Centrioles are necessary to the process of mitosis in all organisms.

Question 26

In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?

A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase

Question 27

During which phases of mitosis do the chromosomes look like Xs?

A) prophase, anaphase
B) anaphase, metaphase
C) metaphase, telophase
D) prophase, metaphase
E) anaphase, telophase

Question 28

The overall cell cycle is dramatically different for animals than for plant cells.

Question 29

During mitosis, separation of the sister chromatids ensures that each daughter cell will receive two copies of each type of chromosome.

Question 30

Which of the following are genetically identical?

A) both members of a pair of chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) the mother's and the father's chromosomes
D) the mother's and her child's chromosomes
E) the father's and his child's chromosomes

Question 31

Which of the following is true of the chromosomes in a cell undergoing mitosis?

A) They are loosely compacted.
B) They are unavailable for RNA synthesis.
C) They no longer have histones bound to them.
D) They stay within the confines of the cell nucleus.
E) They are present in the haploid number.

Question 32

Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?

A) prophase, metaphase, interphase, telophase, prometaphase
B) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, prometaphase, telophase
C) anaphase, prometaphase, interphase, telophase, prophase
D) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
E) prometaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase

Question 33

In humans, the diploid number of chromosomes is

A) 20.
B) 46.
C) 23.
D) variable depending on whether male or female.
E) 92.

Question 34

If the total number of chromosomes in a cell is six, then after mitosis there will be

A) six chromosomes in each daughter cell.
B) three chromosomes in each daughter cell.
C) 12 chromosomes in each daughter cell.
D) two chromosomes in each daughter cell.
E) three chromosomes in one daughter cell and six chromosomes in the other cell.

Question 35

Which of the following best describes the role of histones?

A) Histones play a role in coding for hereditary features.
B) Histones make RNA synthesis possible.
C) Histones are responsible for packaging the DNA so it can fit into a small space.
D) Histones are not thought to play any role in the cell.
E) Histones determine the diploid number of chromosomes.

Question 36

If their sperm contain 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do diploid cells in horses contain?

A) 46
B) 23
C) 32
D) 64
E) 128

Question 37

If a crayfish has 200 total chromosomes in its body cells (not ovaries or testes)

A) any 100 could have been from its father and any 100 from its mother.
B) they would consist of 100 pairs with one of each pair from the father, one of each pair from the mother.
C) as many as none to 200 came from the father and conversely, from 200 to none would have come from the mother.
D) 50 pairs or 100 total would come from the father and 50 pairs from the mother.
E) all 200 come from the mother in a female crayfish, all 200 from the father in a male crayfish.

Question 38

The chromatids are held together at a region called the centromere.

Question 39

During what stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disappear and the chromosomes become distinct?

A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase

Question 40

The length of DNA in each chromosome is longer than the diameter of the cell nucleus.

Question 41

The second meiotic division is essentially a mitotic division except for the fact that the cells produced are

A) haploid.
B) diploid.
C) polyploid.
D) autosomal.
E) somatic.

Question 42

The nuclear membrane reappears in mitosis during

A) interphase.
B) prophase.
C) metaphase.
D) anaphase.
E) telophase.

Question 43

What forms the contractile ring in animal cells?

A) membrane vesicles
B) actin filaments
C) cellulose fibrils
D) cell wall
E) histones

Question 44

You are examining a cell under the microscope that is undergoing cell division and cannot find any asters. What else would be absent in this cell?

A) a cell plate
B) centrosomes
C) a spindle
D) a cleavage furrow
E) chromosomes

Question 45

Replication of the DNA for meiosis occurs between telophase I and prophase II.

Question 46

During what stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate from each other?

A) prophase
B) anaphase I
C) anaphase II
D) metaphase I
E) metaphase II

Question 47

How does cell division differ between animal and plant cells?

A) Animal cells lack centrioles and no spindle forms during cell division.
B) Plant cells form a cleavage furrow or indentation of membrane between new daughter cells.
C) Plant cells use binary fission.
D) The cell plate is the final partitioning of plant cells.
E) There is no difference. Plant cells and animal cells undergo the same cellular processes during mitosis.

Question 48

You are looking at a cell under the microscope, and see what appears to be several "X" structures being pulled to each side of the cell. What stage of meiosis are you looking at?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase I
D) anaphase I
E) anaphase II

Question 49

Synapsis occurs during what stage of meiosis?

A) anaphase I
B) telophase II
C) metaphase II
D) prophase I
E) anaphase II

Question 50

During what stage do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

A) prophase
B) anaphase I
C) anaphase II
D) metaphase I
E) metaphase II

Question 51

An organism has 8 pairs of chromosomes in each somatic cell. If the sperm and egg did not undergo meiosis, how many chromosomes would be present in a cell that resulted from the fusion of a sperm and egg?

A) 8
B) 16
C) 24
D) 32
E) 64

Question 52

In plant cells, what is responsible for organizing the spindle?

A) centrosomes
B) centrioles
C) microtubules
D) asters
E) centromeres

Question 53

During crossing-over

A) chromosomes switch poles.
B) mitosis becomes meiosis.
C) chromatin becomes chromosomes.
D) chromosomes become chromatin.
E) chromatids exchange segments of genetic material.

Question 54

Homologous chromosomes are genetically identical to each other.

Question 55

Meiosis results in a change in chromosome number indicated by

A) 2n to 2n.
B) 2n to n.
C) n to 2n.
D) n to n.
E) 2n to 2n in diploid organisms, n to n in haploid.

Question 56

Without considering the variation provided by crossing-over, how much will two siblings from one set of parents vary from each other?

A) All siblings from the same parents are identical to each other and demonstrate traits that are exactly halfway between their parents' traits.
B) Siblings receive 100% of one parent's genes or the other parent's genes so they will either be identical if they receive the same parent's genes, or nothing alike if they receive different parent's genes.
C) Siblings inherit essentially 50% of their genes from each parent, but two sibling offspring may share with each other from zero to 23 chromosomes in common from each parent and therefore vary widely from each other.
D) Siblings inherit copies of the same 23 pairs of chromosomes from each parent and only crossing-over provides any differences between siblings.
E) There is one chance in 23 of getting identical sets of chromosomes from one parent, times two because there are two parents; therefore, two siblings out of 46 will be identical except for the extent of crossing-over.

Question 57

Crossing-over is the only factor that is responsible for the variation that exists between offspring of one set of parents.

Question 58

Which of the following processes occurs in both mitosis and meiosis?

A) homologous chromosomes pair up
B) two series of cell divisions
C) sister chromosomes separating during the second division
D) single chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate
E) fertilization restores the diploid number

Question 59

If the diploid chromosome number is 16, the chromosome number of each gamete will be

A) 4.
B) 8.
C) 12.
D) 16.
E) 32.

Question 60

You are examining a cell under the microscope and see what appear to be four sister chromatids bound together and remnants of the nuclear envelope. What stage of meiosis are you looking at?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase I
D) metaphase II
E) telophase I

Question 61

The only haploid stage in the animal life cycle is the gamete.

Question 62

The formation of sperm is termed

A) oogenesis.
B) homologous formation.
C) spermatogenesis.
D) gametogenesis
E) mitosis.

Question 63

What lines up at the metaphase plate during both metaphase I of meiosis and metaphase of mitosis?

A) Metaphase 1 of meiosis: single chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
Metaphase of mitosis: single chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
B) Metaphase 1 of meiosis: homologous chromosomes
Metaphase of mitosis: homologous chromosomes
C) Metaphase 1 of meiosis: single chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
Metaphase of mitosis: single chromosomes composed of one sister chromatid
D) Metaphase 1 of meiosis: homologous chromosomes
Metaphase of mitosis: chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
E) Metaphase 1 of meiosis: single chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
Metaphase of mitosis: homologous chromosomes

Question 64

Why are two children born to the same parents (not identical twins) unlikely to have the same genetic makeup?

A) Crossing-over recombines portions of sister chromatids.
B) Fertilization provides a new pairing of chromosomes.
C) Each sperm or egg has a random assortment of chromosomes, half from each pair.
D) Chromosomes align themselves independently during meiosis I.
E) All of the answer choices lead to genetic differences among siblings.

Question 65

Oogenesis

A) occurs in the ovary.
B) produces eggs with 23 chromosomes.
C) produces four equal-size eggs.
D) occurs in the ovary and produces eggs with 23 chromosomes.
E) occurs in the ovary, produces four equal-sized eggs with 23 chromosomes each.

Question 66

Mitotic division is the normal process of cell reproduction to build and maintain the body of an organism, while meiosis takes place only in the formation of gametes for reproduction.

Question 67

Indicate the portions of the cell cycle that contain checkpoints and what the checkpoint controls.

Question 68

What lines up during metaphase II of meiosis and metaphase of mitosis?

A) Metaphase II of meiosis: individual chromosomes each composed of two sister chromatids
Metaphase of mitosis: individual chromosomes each composed of two sister chromatids
B) Metaphase II of meiosis: homologous chromosomes
Metaphase of mitosis: homologous chromosomes
C) Metaphase II of meiosis: individual chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
Metaphase of mitosis: individual chromosomes each composed of one sister chromatid
D) Metaphase II of meiosis: individual chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
Metaphase of mitosis: homologous chromosomes
E) Metaphase II of meiosis: individual chromosomes composed of one sister chromatid
Metaphase of mitosis: individual chromosomes composed of one chromatid

Question 69

Which of the following events would be controlled by an external signal?

A) cell division
B) prophase proceeding into metaphase
C) the chromosomes aligning at the equatorial plane before the cell begins anaphase
D) initiating S phase
E) All of the answer choices are controlled by an external signal.

Question 70

It is the secondary oocyte and not the egg that the sperm fertilizes to form a diploid organism.

Question 71

A basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that in oogenesis

A) four functional eggs are produced.
B) mitosis instead of meiosis occurs.
C) both sperm and egg are produced.
D) one functional egg is produced.
E) the chromosome number is not divided in half.

Question 72

What is the difference between the chromosomes in a secondary spermatocyte and those in a spermatid?

A) The chromosomes in secondary spermatocytes consist of two chromatids; the ones in the spermatid consist of only one chromatid.
B) The chromosomes in a secondary spermatocyte consist of homologous chromosomes; the ones in the spermatid consist of two chromatids.
C) The chromosomes in the secondary spermatocyte consist of one chromatid; the ones in the spermatid consist of two chromatids.
D) The secondary spermatocyte is diploid; the spermatid is haploid.
E) The secondary spermatocyte is haploid; the spermatid is diploid.

Question 73

List in order the stages of meiosis.

Question 74

Explain what is meant by the term homologous chromosomes.