Deck 14: The Lymphatic System and Immunity

Question 1

Splenic blood vessels and lymphatic vessels connect with the spleen at the

A) sinus.
B) medulla.
C) hilum.
D) cortex.
E) capsule.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Lymphatic vessels, which exit the lymph node and carry the lymph toward the venous system, are called

A) lacteals.
B) afferent lymphatic vessels.
C) efferent lymphatic vessels.
D) lymphatic trunks.
E) lymphatic ducts.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

A foreign microorganism that may cause disease in humans is called a(n)

A) pathogen.
B) antigen.
C) antibody.
D) pathology.
E) plaque.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The white pulp of the spleen contains large numbers of

A) red blood cells and platelets as well as vast stores of iron.
B) lymphocytes, which initiate immune responses.
C) eosinophils, which engage in immune surveillance.
D) lymphocytes, which act as stationary phagocytes.
E) antibodies that remain in reserve for the next antigen encounter.

Question 5

Which are the primary cells of the lymphatic system?

A) pyrogens
B) lymphocytes
C) mast cells
D) lymph nodes
E) phagocytes

Question 6

Which of the following is a primary function of the lymphatic system?

A) circulation of nutrients
B) circulation of hormones
C) production, maintenance, and distribution of lymphocytes
D) production, maintenance, and distribution of plasma proteins
E) blocking the action of histamine

Question 7

Lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of emptying into the

A) right lymphatic duct.
B) subclavian veins.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) superior vena cava.
E) dural sinus.

Question 8

The group of lymphoid stem cells that migrates to the thymus and divides repeatedly produces which type(s) of lymphocytes?

A) B cells
B) T cells
C) NK cells
D) T cells and B cells
E) B cells and NK cells

Question 9

The role of the spleen is slightly different from other lymph organs because it

A) produces antibodies.
B) produces memory cells.
C) filters blood.
D) filters lymph.
E) contains lymphocytes.

Question 10

The two collecting ducts that ultimately drain the lymphatic vessels are the

A) thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct.
B) lumbar duct and left lymphatic duct.
C) intestinal duct and left celiac trunk.
D) bronchomediastinal duct and subclavian duct.
E) thyrocervical trunk and bronchomediastinal duct.

Question 11

The wall structure of lymphatics and the flow of lymph through them are comparable to those of

A) elastic arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) the vena cava.
D) veins.
E) muscular arteries.

Question 12

Lymphoid nodules, such as the appendix, are composed of loose connective tissue containing densely packed

A) Peyer patches.
B) basophils.
C) spleens.
D) neutrophils.
E) lymphocytes.

Question 13

Lymph nodes

A) contain the largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body.
B) are the site of T cell maturation.
C) stimulate lymphocyte stem-cell division.
D) purify lymph before it reaches the veins.
E) remove abnormal blood cells and components.

Question 14

________ are clusters of lymphoid nodules located beneath the epithelial lining of the intestines.

A) Adenoids
B) Lingual tonsils
C) Palatine tonsils
D) Vermiform appendices
E) Peyer patches

Question 15

The red pulp of the spleen contains large quantities of

A) lymphocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) red blood cells.
D) platelets.
E) fibrous connective tissue.

Question 16

Which of the following function in immunological surveillance?

A) NK cells
B) helper T cells
C) plasma cells
D) B cells
E) regulatory T cells

Question 17

Within lymph nodes, fixed macrophages and dendritic cells remove at least ________ percent of antigens arriving in lymph.

A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 80
E) 99

Question 18

________ are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.

A) Tonsils
B) Peyer patches
C) Lymph nodes
D) Complements
E) Thymus glands

Question 19

In the condition called ________, interstitial fluids accumulate in a region in which drainage has been blocked.

A) lymphadenopathy
B) systemic lupus erythematosus
C) lymphoma
D) mononucleosis
E) lymphedema

Question 20

The thymus gland is positioned

A) posterior to the thyroid gland.
B) posterior to the sternum.
C) inferior to the heart.
D) posterior to the trachea.
E) in the inguinal region.

Question 21

Which of the following is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous connective tissue capsule?

A) palatine tonsils
B) appendix
C) lymph nodes
D) Peyer patches
E) pharyngeal tonsils

Question 22

Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier, which is an innate defense mechanism?

A) secretions of sebaceous glands
B) fixed macrophages
C) perforins
D) cytokines
E) histamine and heparin

Question 23

Which of the following is the "first line of cellular defense" against foreign compounds or pathogens?

A) T cells
B) B cells
C) NK cells
D) phagocytes
E) plasma cells

Question 24

Which is the action of histamine?

A) releases digestive enzymes that destroy the injured cells and then attacks the surrounding tissues
B) increases rate of metabolism
C) interferes with viral replication inside the cell
D) makes capillaries more permeable and speeds up blood flow through the area of damaged tissue
E) enhances phagocytosis

Question 25

A bacterial infection in the foot would most likely affect lymph nodes in which of the following regions?

A) axillary
B) cervical
C) mammary
D) inguinal
E) brachial

Question 26

The spleen is

A) embedded within the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.
B) wedged between the pancreas, the left kidney, and the diaphragm.
C) medial to the stomach and just inferior to the diaphragm.
D) attached to the lateral border of the stomach.
E) posterolateral to the liver.

Question 27

NK cells secrete ________, which kills an abnormal cell by creating large pores in its plasma membrane.

A) histamine
B) pus
C) perforin
D) heparin
E) pyrogen

Question 28

________ are macrophages found in and around blood channels in the liver.

A) Mast cells
B) Monocytes
C) Microglia
D) Kupffer cells
E) Neutrophils

Question 29

Adaptive defenses

A) involve immunological surveillance.
B) protect against particular threats.
C) do not distinguish between one threat and another.
D) are not dependent on the activities of lymphocytes.
E) are present at birth.

Question 30

Virus-infected cells release

A) complement.
B) heparin.
C) interferon.
D) pyrogens.
E) perforins.

Question 31

Choose the correct statement about interferons.

A) Interferons are part of the complement system.
B) Interferons impart resistance to viral infections.
C) Interferons secrete cytokines which trigger apoptosis.
D) Interferons engage in agglutination and are thus similar to antibodies.
E) Interferons interfere with antigen recognition on CD 4 cells.

Question 32

The ability of certain cells to respond to chemicals in their environment is called

A) chemotaxis.
B) complement.
C) necrosis.
D) phagocytosis.
E) regeneration.

Question 33

Which cell population plays a pivotal role in the process of inflammation?

A) monocytes
B) NK cells
C) cytokines
D) complement proteins
E) mast cells

Question 34

Major events produced by inflammation include

A) redness, swelling, heat, and pain.
B) redness, pus, fever, and rapid heart rate.
C) tears, swelling, pain, and fever.
D) swelling, redness, tissue damage, and altered pH.
E) heat, pain, fever, and activation of the complement system.

Question 35

Chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes, a sign called ________, may occur in response to bacterial or viral infections, endocrine disorders, or cancer.

A) lymphadenopathy
B) splenectomy
C) tonsillitis
D) lymphoma
E) appendicitis

Question 36

The ability of certain phagocytes to move through the wall of a capillary is called

A) inflammation.
B) diapedesis.
C) chemotaxis.
D) necrosis.
E) immunological escape.

Question 37

Lymph differs from plasma in that

A) lymph contains more protein than plasma.
B) lymph contains white blood cells, whereas plasma does not.
C) plasma contains more protein than lymph.
D) lymph contains electrolytes and plasma does not.
E) There is no difference; lymph and plasma are the same.

Question 38

Choose the most accurate characteristic of B cells.

A) They help establish and control the sensitivity of the immune response.
B) They stimulate the activities of T cells.
C) They attack foreign cells, normal cells infected with viruses, and cancer cells that appear in normal tissues.
D) They continually monitor peripheral tissues.
E) They differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies.

Question 39

Which of the following immune cell populations targets foreign compounds or pathogens that have been coated with antibodies?

A) Kupffer cells
B) neutrophils
C) monocytes
D) microglia
E) eosinophils

Question 40

During inflammation, clotting does not occur at the actual site of injury due to the presence of

A) pus.
B) pyrogens.
C) histamine.
D) heparin.
E) perforins.

Question 41

________ enable the immune system to launch a faster, stronger response to a previously encountered antigen.

A) Plasma cells
B) Memory cells
C) Helper T cells
D) NK cells
E) Pathogenic cells

Question 42

In artificially induced active immunity,

A) exposure to an antigen in the environment occurs naturally.
B) antibody production is stimulated under controlled conditions.
C) the body receives antibodies produced by another person.
D) antibodies are administered to prevent disease after exposure to the pathogen.
E) genes for antibodies are introduced into the body.

Question 43

Which cells have a primary role in cell-mediated immunity?

A) B cells
B) T cells
C) NK cells
D) antigens
E) plasma cells

Question 44

A virus is injected into a rabbit and the rabbit is allowed to make antibodies against the viral antigen. These antibodies are then removed from the rabbit plasma and injected into a human to combat an infection by the same virus. This would be an example of

A) innate immunity.
B) artificially induced passive immunity.
C) artificially induced active immunity.
D) naturally acquired passive immunity.
E) naturally acquired active immunity.

Question 45

Allowing small children to be exposed to some dirt is one way of imparting

A) naturally acquired active immunity.
B) artificially induced active immunity.
C) innate (nonspecific) immunity.
D) naturally acquired passive immunity.
E) artificially induced passive immunity.

Question 46

During a typical immune response, activated B cells mature into cells that produce ________, which bind(s) to and attack(s) foreign invaders.

A) antigens
B) perforins
C) antibodies
D) heparin
E) complement proteins

Question 47

A child develops symptoms of chicken pox, produces antibodies against its specific antigens, and recovers from the illness. Later as an adult, he is immune to another exposure to the chicken pox virus. This is an example of which type of immunity?

A) artificially induced active immunity
B) naturally acquired passive immunity
C) artificially induced passive immunity
D) innate (nonspecific) immunity
E) naturally acquired active immunity

Question 48

Choose the correct paired interaction in order for T cell activation to occur.

A) CD8 T cells; Class I MHC proteins
B) CD4 T cells; Class I MHC proteins
C) CD8 T cells; Class II MHC proteins
D) CD6 T cells; Class I MHC proteins
E) CD6 T cells; Class II MHC proteins

Question 49

Which of the following indicates that the immune system has achieved versatility?

A) Millions of NK cells are produced to ensure efficient immune surveillance.
B) Lymphocytes, which are sensitive to an antigen, undergo repeated cell divisions.
C) Production of many normal B cells and T cells, which will attack "self" antigens, occurs.
D) Lymphocyte cell divisions produce two cell types: one group, which will attack specific antigens, and another group, which will remain inactive until exposed to the same antigen later.
E) Millions of different lymphocyte populations are produced, each with different antigen receptors.

Question 50

________ exists when the immune system does not respond to normal tissues and their antigens.

A) Versatility
B) Tolerance
C) Memory
D) Specificity
E) Active immunity

Question 51

Choose the most accurate characteristic of Class II MHC proteins.

A) They dampen the responses of other T cells and of B cells.
B) They divide to produce memory cells and more active helper T cells.
C) They are found in the plasma membranes of all nucleated cells.
D) They consist of circulating proteins that assist antibodies in the destruction of pathogens.
E) They are found in the membranes of lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells.

Question 52

The major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A) kills the target cell by disrupting its metabolism.
B) produces antibodies in lymph glands.
C) is a group of genes that codes for CD4 markers.
D) is a membrane protein that can display foreign antigens.
E) is the antigen found on bacteria that stimulates an immune response.

Question 53

When an antigen triggers an immune response, it usually activates ________ first.

A) mast cells
B) plasma cells
C) B cells
D) T cells
E) NK cells

Question 54

Which of the following secretes antibodies that have the same target as the antibodies on the surface of sensitized B cells?

A) memory cells
B) plasma cells
C) helper T cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) suppressor T cells

Question 55

Which is true regarding pyrogens?

A) They can reset the temperature-regulating center in the hypothalamus and raise the body temperature.
B) They break down tissue by autolysis, releasing digestive enzymes that first destroy the injured cells and then attack surrounding tissues.
C) They act only within one tissue.
D) They are particularly sensitive to chemicals released by other body cells or by pathogens.
E) They make capillaries more permeable and speed up blood flow through the area within the damaged tissue.

Question 56

One method by which cytotoxic T cells destroy their target cells is by releasing substances that

A) increase protein production.
B) enhance ribosomal activities.
C) suppress the antigen recognition process.
D) rupture cell membranes.
E) produce memory T cells.

Question 57

Cells that secrete cytokines, which coordinate specific and nonspecific defenses, are called

A) B cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) mast cells.
E) NK cells.

Question 58

Blocking the antigen receptors on the surface of lymphocytes would interfere with

A) phagocytosis of the antigen.
B) that lymphocyte's ability to produce antibodies.
C) antigen recognition.
D) the ability of the lymphocyte to present antigen.
E) agglutination of the antigen.

Question 59

Which property of immunity exists when the plasma membrane of each T cell and B cell has receptors that will bind only one particular type of antigen, ignoring all other types of antigens?

A) specificity
B) memory
C) versatility
D) tolerance
E) innate immunity

Question 60

Immunity that results from antibodies ingested from breast milk is which type of immunity?

A) naturally acquired active immunity
B) naturally acquired passive immunity
C) artificially induced active immunity
D) artificially induced passive immunity
E) innate (nonspecific) immunity

Question 61

The specificity of an antibody molecule depends on the structure of which of the following?

A) the constant segments of the light and heavy chains
B) the constant and variable segments of the light and heavy chains
C) the variable segments of the light and heavy chains
D) the variable segments of the light chains only
E) the constant segments of the heavy chains only

Question 62

The clumping of red blood cells, which occurs when incompatible blood types are mixed, is an example of

A) agglutination.
B) opsonization.
C) sensitization.
D) precipitation.
E) immunological surveillance.

Question 63

Which of the following stimulates the production of blood cells in red bone marrow and of lymphocytes in lymphoid tissues and organs?

A) Il-1
B) TNFs
C) T_c cells
D) B cells
E) CSFs

Question 64

________ function in pinocytosis, phagocytosis, antigen processing, and antigen presentation bound to Class II MHC proteins.

A) Kupffer cells
B) NK cells
C) Microglia
D) Macrophages
E) Dendritic cells

Question 65

Besides suppressor T cells, some ________ also help suppress immune function and shorten the duration of the immune response.

A) interleukins
B) TNFs
C) phagocytic regulators
D) CSFs
E) interferons

Question 66

What is the function of IgG antibodies?

A) They play a role in the activation of B cells.
B) They attack pathogens before they enter the body tissues.
C) They are responsible for defense against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins.
D) They accelerate inflammation upon exposure to antigens.
E) They are responsible for cross reactions between incompatible blood types.

Question 67

After receiving a blood transfusion, a patient develops signs indicating a cross reaction between incompatible blood types. Which class of immunoglobulins is responsible for these signs?

A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgD
E) IgG

Question 68

The chemical mediators, which stimulate the production of neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils, cause fever, and increase T cell sensitivity, are termed

A) interleukins.
B) interferons.
C) tumor necrosis factors.
D) phagocytic regulators.
E) colony-stimulating factors.

Question 69

Immunoglobulins that can bind to antigens, stimulating basophils and mast cells, are called ________ antibodies.

A) IgD
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgA
E) IgG

Question 70

Opsonization, the process in which some pathogens are coated with antibodies and complement proteins, is representative of which antibody function?

A) activation of complement
B) agglutination
C) neutralization
D) enhancement of phagocytosis
E) stimulation of inflammation

Question 71

Figure 14-1 Typical Antibody Molecule and Typical Antigen
Use Figure 14-1 to identify the labeled part.
What does label B represent?

A) disulfide bond
B) variable segment
C) light chain
D) heavy chain
E) constant segments of light and heavy chains

Question 72

Figure 14-1 Typical Antibody Molecule and Typical Antigen
Use Figure 14-1 to identify the labeled part.
What does label A represent?

A) complement binding site
B) antigen binding site
C) antigenic determinant sites
D) macrophage binding site
E) antibodies

Question 73

The portions of an antigen's exposed surfaces to which its specific antibody binds are regions called

A) opsonins.
B) the constant segments of the light and heavy chains.
C) antigenic-determinant sites.
D) complement-binding sites.
E) antigen-binding sites.

Question 74

Figure 14-1 Typical Antibody Molecule and Typical Antigen
Use Figure 14-1 to identify the labeled part.
What does label D represent?

A) disulfide bond
B) variable segment
C) light chain
D) heavy chain
E) constant segments of light and heavy chains

Question 75

Immunoglobulins that are the first antibody type to be produced and secreted, following initial exposure to an antigen, are the ________ antibodies.

A) IgE
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgA

Question 76

Figure 14-1 Typical Antibody Molecule and Typical Antigen
Use Figure 14-1 to identify the labeled part.
What does label C represent?

A) disulfide bond
B) variable segment
C) light chain
D) heavy chain
E) constant segments of light and heavy chains

Question 77

Which of the following occurs in exocrine secretions and functions to attack pathogens before they enter body tissues?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgF
E) IgM

Question 78

The ________ form the base of a typical antibody molecule.

A) variable segments of the heavy chains
B) constant segments of the light chains
C) variable segments of the light chains
D) constant segments of the heavy chains
E) constant and variable segments of the light and heavy chains

Question 79

During B cell sensitization and activation, antigens enter the B cell through

A) diffusion.
B) osmosis.
C) endocytosis.
D) protein channels.
E) antigen channels.

Question 80

Identify the correct match between the immunoglobulins and their characteristics.

A) IgA/occurs in endocrine secretions
B) IgD/largest and most diverse
C) IgE/accelerates inflammation
D) IgG/occurs in tears and saliva
E) IgM/stimulates release of histamine