Deck 3: Innate Immunity

Question 1

Acute-phase reactants are elevated in a patient's serum.What does this result,on its own,indicate about the patient?

A) Inflammation of an unknown cause is present.
B) The patient has a leukemia but not a lymphoma.
C) The patient has a bacterial infection.
D) There is a parasitic infection and not a viral infection.

Answer 1

Inflammation of an unknown cause is present.

Question 2

What is the function of the acute-phase protein haptoglobin?

A) Acts as an opsonin
B) Forms clots
C) Binds hemoglobin
D) Acts as a chemotaxin

Answer 2

Binds hemoglobin

Question 3

The phagosome of a macrophage is a membrane-bound vesicle that contains:

A) enzymes.
B) reactive oxygen intermediates.
C) ingested pathogens.
D) perforin and granzymes.

Answer 3

ingested pathogens.

Question 4

Serum proteins that increase in concentration within 24 to 48 hours of the onset of infection or injury are called:

A) reagins.
B) immunoglobulins.
C) complement proteins.
D) acute-phase proteins.

Question 5

Which of the following can be measured as an indicator of inflammation?

A) Body temperature
B) Number of circulating leukocytes
C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D) All of these

Question 6

Which of the following is an acute-phase protein?

A) Serum amyloid A
B) Streptolysin O
C) Cardiolipin
D) Reagin

Question 7

What is the major function of C-reactive protein?

A) Opsonization
B) Binding hemoglobin
C) Causing vasodilation
D) Promoting clot formation

Question 8

Macrophages use all of the following to kill bacteria EXCEPT:

A) hydrogen peroxide.
B) perforin.
C) hydroxyl radical.
D) lysozyme.

Question 9

Which of the following is part of the external defense system?

A) Ceruloplasmin
B) Skin
C) Neutrophils
D) Complement

Question 10

Oxidative killing involves which of the following?

A) Perforin and granzymes
B) Activation of complement
C) Direct cytokine-mediated killing
D) The hexose monophosphate shunt

Question 11

The defense mechanism carried out by natural killer cells involves:

A) recognition of a specific antigen.
B) MHC class II-mediated killing.
C) perforin- and granzyme-mediated killing.
D) phagocytosis.

Question 12

All of the following are characteristic of acute-phase reactants EXCEPT:

A) they are constituents that increase rapidly in response to infection.
B) they are used to diagnose a specific disease.
C) they enhance phagocytosis.
D) they limit destruction of host tissue.

Question 13

The internal defense system includes which of the following?

A) Cilia
B) Mucous membranes
C) Acute-phase reactants
D) Acidity of the skin

Question 14

Which acute-phase reactant is an important clotting factor?

A) Haptoglobin
B) Ceruloplasmin
C) Fibrinogen
D) Alpha-2 macroglobulin

Question 15

Which of the following is directly used in oxidative killing of target cells?

A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Lysozyme
C) Defensin
D) TNF-alpha

Question 16

Which of the following occurs during the oxidative burst?

A) A decrease in oxygen consumption
B) Pseudopodia extending around a particle
C) The release of granules from a cell
D) Increased release of carbon dioxide

Question 17

Which substance best inactivates bacterial proteins?

A) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
B) Oxygen
C) Hypochlorite
D) Lactic acid

Question 18

Which is a characteristic of circulating neutrophils?

A) Kill cells with granzymes
B) Membranes express antigen-specific receptors
C) Membranes express pathogen-recognition receptors
D) Activated by alpha-1 antitrypsin

Question 19

All of the following occur during the process of inflammation EXCEPT:

A) increased capillary permeability.
B) migration of basophils away from tissue.
C) increase in blood flow.
D) swelling and pain.

Question 20

Macrophages recognize target cells using which of the following?

A) MHC class I molecules
B) Toll-like receptors
C) Antigen-specific receptors
D) Killer cell inhibitory receptors

Question 21

Proteins that form channels in target cell membranes are called:

A) perforins.
B) granzymes.
C) opsonins.
D) pentraxins.

Question 22

The killing mechanism of natural killer cells is regulated by:

A) inhibitory receptors.
B)activating receptors.
C)both inhibitory and activating receptors.
D)none of the above.

Question 23

Patients with chronic granulomatous disease have neutrophils that cannot kill bacteria because they:

A) cannot phagocytize bacteria.
B) do not have granules containing antibacterial enzymes.
C) cannot produce superoxide.
D) cannot migrate to the site of infection.

Question 24

Toll-like receptors bind to:

A) cytokines.
B) the Fc portion of IgG.
C) acute-phase proteins.
D) pathogen-associated molecular patterns.

Question 25

Which is a characteristic of resident bacteria (microbiota)in the gastrointestinal tract?

A) Develop when a person has an immunodeficiency
B) Consist of a single species that is tolerated by the host
C) Supplant pathogenic bacteria
D) Cause gastrointestinal disease

Question 26

Although antibodies are generally regarded as part of the adaptive immune system,they can enhance the function of which innate process(es)?

A)Phagocytosis (via opsonization)
B)Natural killer cell cytotoxicity
C) Both phagocytosis (via opsonization)and natural killer cell cytotoxicity
D)None of the above

Question 27

Which enzyme protects host cells rather than destroying invading cells?

A) Alpha-1 antitrypsin
B) Lysozyme
C) Granzyme
D) Myeloperoxidase

Question 28

Which of the following have the highest concentrations of Toll-like receptors?

A) B-cells
B) Monocytes
C) Natural killer cells
D) T cells

Question 29

For diapedesis to occur:

A) CD16 receptors must be bound.
B) microbes must be phagocytized.
C) endothelial cells must contract.
D) NADPH must be activated.

Question 30

Which enzyme is part of the external defense system?

A) Lysozyme
B) Elastase
C) Myeloperoxidase
D) Superoxide dismutase

Question 31

Inappropriately administered antibiotic therapy can sometimes cause disease,most often by:

A) eliminating normal protective flora.
B) altering local pH.
C) being toxic to host tissues.
D) depressing adaptive immune responses.

Question 32

After a macrophage phagocytizes,kills,and digests a microbe:

A) all of the microbial debris is expelled by exocytosis.
B) some microbial peptides are bound by MHC class II.
C) some microbial peptides are bound by Fc.
D) all of the microbial peptides are broken down into amino acids that are recycled by the macrophage into new proteins.

Question 33

Which of the following binds to CD16 on the surface of natural killer cells?

A) MHC class I
B) Fc of IgG
C) T-cell receptor
D) Antigenic peptide

Question 34

Oxygen-independent bacterial killing in the phagolysosome involves:

A) hypochlorite.
B) pH-activated defensins.
C) opsonins.
D) pentraxins.

Question 35

C-reactive protein,complement components,and antibodies are all:

A) acute-phase reactants.
B) enzymes.
C) pathogen-recognition receptors.
D) opsonins.

Question 36

Toll-like receptors and C-type lectin receptors are examples of:

A) pathogen-recognition receptors.
B) antigen receptors.
C) Fc receptors.
D) killer inhibitory receptors.

Question 37

All of the following are considered acute-phase reactants EXCEPT:

A) fibrinogen.
B) complement.
C) C-reactive protein.
D) TNF-alpha.

Question 38

Natural killer cells recognize and kill abnormal host cells that are:

A) opsonized with IgE.
B) lacking expression of MHC class I.
C) expressing MHC class I.
D) presenting antigen bound to MHC class II.

Question 39

All of the following are part of the process of phagocytosis EXCEPT:

A) formation of a phagosome.
B) creation of hypochlorite radicals.
C) diapedesis.
D) fusion of lysosome with phagosome.

Question 40

Granzymes activate which of the following in a target cell?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Cytokine secretion
D) Complement activation