Deck 4: Adaptive Immunity

Question 1

Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen?

A) Viruses
B) Parasites
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi

Answer 1

Viruses

Question 2

The receptor for antigen on a mature naïve B cell is:

A) class I MHC.
B) class II MHC.
C) IgG.
D) IgM.

Answer 2

IgM.

Question 3

How are cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells similar?

A) Both require antibody to be bound to the target cell.
B) Both induce apoptosis in the target cell.
C) Both recognize peptide plus MHC class I.
D) Both kill target cells lacking MHC class I.

Answer 3

Both induce apoptosis in the target cell.

Question 4

Characteristics of T cells emerging from the thymus include which of the following?

A) MHC restricted
B) Self-tolerant
C) Antigen specific
D) All of the above

Question 5

Perforin and granzymes are used by which cells to kill target cells?

A) CD8 T cells and CD4 T cells
B) CD4 T cells and natural killer cells
C) Natural killer cells and B cells
D) CD8 T cells and natural killer cells

Question 6

Predominant cell types involved in the humoral immune response are:

A) eosinophils.
B) macrophages.
C) neutrophils.
D) B cells.

Question 7

Which T-cell surface protein is associated with the T-cell receptor and is involved in signal transduction?

A) CD3
B) CD4
C) CD8
D) CD154

Question 8

The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are:

A) plasma cells.
B) B cells.
C) T helper cells.
D) cytotoxic T cells.

Question 9

The only cells in the body capable of specifically recognizing and distinguishing different antigenic determinants are:

A) macrophages.
B) dendritic cells.
C) lymphocytes.
D) neutrophils.

Question 10

The purpose of negative selection of B cells is to:

A) eliminate B cells that don't express mu.
B) prevent activation of B cells in the bone marrow.
C) direct more B cells to become plasma cells.
D) eliminate B cells that are specific for self-antigens.

Question 11

How are immunoglobulin and T-cell receptors similar?

A) Both have multiple gene segments encoding the variable region.
B) Both have an antigen-binding site that recognizes conformational epitopes.
C) Both are required for antigen presentation.
D) Both can capture numerous different antigens.

Question 12

Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the:

A) bone marrow.
B) spleen.
C) lymph node.
D) Peyer's patches.

Question 13

When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self-antigen,which of the following processes can occur?

A) Class switching
B) Affinity maturation
C) Apoptosis
D) Differentiation

Question 14

T helper cells recognize which of the following?

A) Exogenous peptide bound to class II MHC
B) Native extracellular viral proteins
C) Endogenous peptides bound to class I MHC
D) Microbe-specific structures

Question 15

The difference in kinetics between a primary and secondary immune response is caused by the presence of:

A) memory cells in the secondary response.
B) suppressor cells in the primary response.
C) macrophages in the secondary response.
D) T cells in the primary response.

Question 16

All of the following are found on the surface of a mature naïve B cell EXCEPT:

A) IgD
B) Lambda and mu chains
C) CD19
D) Surrogate light chains

Question 17

Immunoglobulin gene rearrangements occur in which stage of B-cell development?

A) Pro-B cell
B) Pre-B cell
C) Immature B cell
D) Mature B cell

Question 18

T lymphocytes undergo antigen-independent maturation in the:

A) thymus.
B) bone marrow.
C) lymph node.
D) spleen.

Question 19

A cell that can recall previous contact with a particular antigen so that subsequent exposure leads to a more rapid and more effective immune response than the first encounter is which type of cell?

A) Memory lymphocyte
B) Effector lymphocyte
C) Plasma cell
D) Stem cell

Question 20

T cells that respond against self-antigens are inactivated by:

A) binding to immunoglobulin.
B) intermediate-strength binding to self MHC.
C) apoptosis.
D) positive selection.

Question 21

The T-cell receptor for antigen comprises which of the following molecules?

A) Alpha and beta chains
B) Two gamma and two delta chains
C) Epsilon and gamma chains
D) Alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin

Question 22

Helper T cells that promote a humoral immune response include which of the following?

A) Th1
B) Th2
C) Th17
D) All of the above

Question 23

Which marker is found on the group of T cells that assists B cells in making antibody?

A) CD2
B) CD19
C) CD4
D) CD5

Question 24

The function of CD4+ T cells is:

A) to help B cells make antibody.
B) to kill virally infected cells.
C) phagocytosis.
D) production of opsonins.

Question 25

T cells differ from B cells in which of the following ways?

A) T cells express surface immunoglobulin.
B) B cells express CD19 but not CD3.
C) T cells express CD19, CD3, and CD4.
D) B cells express surface immunoglobulin and CD3.

Question 26

A T-independent antibody response:

A) involves memory cells.
B) results in the secretion of primarily IgM.
C) is usually triggered by haptens.
D) requires antigen binding to surface IgD.

Question 27

Which marker would be found on pre-B cells?

A) CD3
B) Mu heavy chains
C) CD16
D) IgD

Question 28

Which cell is capable of producing antibody?

A) Plasma cell
B) CD4+ T cell
C) Macrophage
D) Neutrophil

Question 29

Which statement best describes the specific antigen receptor that is a part of CD3 found on T cells?

A) It appears in the double-negative stage.
B) Alpha and beta chains bind antigen.
C) It is found only on T helper cells.
D) All eight chains are specific for antigen.

Question 30

Identification of T-cell subsets is best accomplished with the use of:

A) antigen-induced proliferation assays.
B) cytotoxicity assays.
C) flow cytometry.
D) serum electrophoresis.

Question 31

Mutations causing deficiencies in CD40L expression lead to an inability of helper T cells to:

A) kill tumor cells, resulting in an increased risk of cancer.
B) activate macrophages, resulting in an inability to clear extracellular pathogens.
C) migrate to the site of an infection by chemotaxis, resulting in a slowed response.
D) promote class-switching, resulting in high IgM and low IgA and IgG concentrations.

Question 32

Which type of helper T cell promotes cytotoxic activity?

A) Th1
B) Th2
C) Treg
D) Th9

Question 33

A lymphocyte exhibits the following markers: CD19,IgM,IgD.What is its likely identity?

A) Double-negative T cell
B) Immature B cell
C) Double-positive T cell
D) Mature B cell

Question 34

A critical receptor involved in the second signal for T-dependent B-cell activation is:

A) CD3.
B) CD19.
C) CD40.
D) surface IgM.

Question 35

Which cells are responsible for killing virally infected host cells and tumor cells?

A) CD4 T cells
B) CD8 T cells
C) B cells
D) Plasma cells

Question 36

Which of the following cells that participate in cell-mediated immunity are antigen specific and directly cytotoxic for target cells?

A) Macrophages
B) Th1 cells
C) Cytotoxic T cells
D) Natural killer cells

Question 37

The purpose or end result of negative selection of the T cell is to ensure:

A) MHC restriction.
B) self-tolerance.
C) T-cell receptor expression.
D) expression of CD3.

Question 38

Which type of leukocyte is identified by an ability to form rosettes with sheep red blood cells?

A) T cell
B) B cell
C) Natural killer cell
D) Plasma cell

Question 39

A plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way?

A) Plasma cells are only found in peripheral blood.
B) Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody.
C) Plasma cells secrete cytokines.
D) Plasma cells are an immature form in B-cell development.

Question 40

A T cell that is rarely found in secondary lymphoid organs and recognizes a limited number of native epitopes is known as:

A) a helper T cell.
B) a gamma-delta T cell.
C) a cytotoxic T cell.
D) an alpha-beta T cell.