Deck 3: Infectious Diseases

Question 1

The bacterial cell wall is primarily constructed of:

A) Peptidoglycan molecules
B) Polysaccharides
C) Glucosamine polymer chitin
D) Glycoproteins

Answer 1

Peptidoglycan molecules

Question 2

The dental hygienist must be cautious when treating immigrant populations because these patients may present with infectious diseases that are:

A) Commonly diagnosed in the general population
B) Frequently seen in indigenous residents
C) Seldom seen in the general population
D) Characterized by constitutional signs and symptoms

Answer 2

Seldom seen in the general population

Question 3

Indigenous microflora:

A) Are present at birth
B) Occur only on external exposed body surfaces
C) Are absent at birth and acquired during life
D) Occur only internally

Answer 3

Are present at birth

Question 4

Infections can be broadly classified as being either:

A) Fast or slow
B) Local or systemic
C) Tender or nontender
D) Lethal or nonlethal

Question 5

Patients with AIDS generally die due to:

A) HIV infection
B) Opportunistic infections
C) Malnutrition states
D) Metastatic cancer

Question 6

Which of the following replicates only after entering a host's body?

A) Fungi
B) Algae
C) Bacteria
D) Virus

Question 7

Viruses are noncellular microorganisms that contain:

A) Only DNA, never RNA
B) DNA or RNA
C) Nuclei incapable of dividing
D) Only RNA, never DNA

Question 8

The two common types of carriers are:

A) Active and inactive
B) Latent and lively
C) Incubator and convalescent
D) Covert and dynamic

Question 9

Epstein-Barr virus and human papilloma virus are examples of:

A) Oncogenic viruses
B) Nonpathogenic viruses
C) Cariogenic viruses
D) Coxsackie viruses

Question 10

The most significant worldwide protozoal infection is:

A) Histoplasmosis
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Coccidioidomycosis
D) Malaria

Question 11

In contrast to Gram-negative bacteria, Gram-positive bacteria have a(n):

A) Irregular lipoprotein layer
B) Thick peptidoglycan layer
C) Thick lipoprotein layer
D) Thin peptidoglycan layer

Question 12

Histoplasmosis most commonly occurs in:

A) Individuals with high socioeconomic status
B) Individuals with low socioeconomic status
C) Individuals who are immunocompromised
D) Newborns and the elderly

Question 13

Bacteria are classified as Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on:

A) Their capacity for replication
B) Their pathogenicity
C) Shape and type of nucleus
D) Staining characteristics of their cell wall

Question 14

Protozoan infections are frequently transmitted through:

A) Showers used in public facilities like sports centers
B) Contaminated food and water
C) Shared eating utensils
D) Unprotected sexual activities

Question 15

Specific microorganisms that cause disease are referred to as:

A) Indigenous microflora
B) Constitutional microflora
C) Nonconstitutional microflora
D) Infectious agents

Question 16

Opportunistic infections are especially common in patients with a history of:

A) Immunosuppression
B) Gingival hyperplasia
C) Hypertension
D) Periodontal disease

Question 17

The most common infectious agents in the oral cavity cause:

A) Sore throat
B) Hairy tongue
C) Caries and periodontal disease
D) Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

Question 18

Infectious diseases are responsible for approximately what percentage of global deaths?

A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 40%

Question 19

Infections caused by microorganisms that are not normally pathogenic in persons with a healthy immune system are known as:

A) Attenuated
B) Pathogens
C) Compromised
D) Opportunistic

Question 20

Carriers are individuals that:

A) Do not become ill and have immune systems that do not eliminate the pathogen
B) Do not become ill and have immune systems that eliminate the pathogen
C) Become ill and have immune systems that do not eliminate the pathogen
D) Are ill and transmit the disease to others without knowing it

Question 21

Infections transmitted by the fecal-oral route are common in:

A) The elderly
B) Children
C) Adults
D) Teenagers

Question 22

The overuse of antibacterials can contribute to development of:

A) Bacteriostatic illnesses
B) Drug-resistant strains
C) Selective toxicity
D) Nonselective toxicity

Question 23

Venereal infections are typically spread through:

A) Direct mucosal contact
B) Inhaled droplets
C) The gastrointestinal tract
D) Indirect mucosal contact

Question 24

Antibiotics, antiviral drugs, and antifungal drugs are included in which of the following drug categories?

A) Vaccines
B) Antipyretics
C) Anticholinergics
D) Antimicrobials

Question 25

An intervention universally utilized to protect mass populations against infection is known as:

A) Vaccination
B) Water fluoridation
C) Water purification
D) Use of antibiotics

Question 26

Antibacterial drugs target each of the following bacterial properties EXCEPT:

A) Metabolic pathways
B) Nucleic acids
C) Cell walls
D) Flagella

Question 27

A quick method for detecting viral infections is:

A) Tissue culture
B) Serological testing
C) Culturing
D) Vaccination

Question 28

The diagnosis of microbial infection is enhanced by all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Isolation and culture
B) Identification of microbial products
C) Detection of antibodies specific to a pathogen
D) Vaccination history of the host

Question 29

Which of the following is NOT a route of transfer for zoonotic infections?

A) Piercing of the skin
B) Consuming raw shellfish
C) Visiting a hospital
D) Handling contaminated pet feces

Question 30

Serological tests are conducted to:

A) Visualize cellular changes resulting from infection
B) Isolate the microorganisms in serum
C) Detect viral particles missed by electron microscopy
D) Test for the presence of antibodies against a virus

Question 31

What type of infections are associated with extreme fatigue, weight loss, fever, night sweats and chills, and body aches?

A) Localized infections
B) Opportunistic infections
C) Systemic infections
D) Idiopathic infections

Question 32

It is important for the dental hygienist to recognize oral manifestations of infectious diseases to:

A) Maintain rigid sterilization protocols
B) Know when to implement extra universal precautions
C) Reduce risk of transmission
D) Reduce systemic manifestations of infectious disease

Question 33

Lyme disease is an example of a(n):

A) Nosocomial infection
B) Local infection
C) Idiopathic infection
D) Zoonotic infection

Question 34

Patients in which a systemic infectious disease is suspected:

A) Are a high priority for completion of treatment
B) Need prompt referral for evaluation and treatment
C) Require prophylactic medications before treatment
D) Do not require prophylactic medications before treatment

Question 35

The clinical outcome of infection is determined by a complex interplay between all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Symptomology
B) Organism
C) Host defenses
D) Local environment

Question 36

Which of the following routes of transmitting common infections would likely occur in a crowded marketplace?

A) Respiratory
B) Venereal
C) Fecal-oral
D) Skin contact

Question 37

All of the following can be seen at the light microscopic level EXCEPT:

A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Viruses
D) Protozoa

Question 38

Most antifungal drugs target:

A) Intracellular membranes
B) The nucleolus
C) Mitochondria
D) Golgi bodies

Question 39

Allowing microorganisms to reproduce in special nutrient media is known as:

A) Microbiological culture
B) Polymerase chain reaction
C) Serology
D) Cytology

Question 40

The objective of immunization is:

A) To delay exposure to a microorganism
B) Promoting natural selection of drug-resistant strains of microorganisms
C) Immunological memory
D) Direct mutation of certain microorganisms

Question 41

Streptococcal pharyngitis is most common in what age group?

A) Infants and toddlers
B) 5 to 15 years of age
C) 30 to 40 years of age
D) All age groups

Question 42

Diphtheria is most often transmitted through:

A) The fecal-oral route
B) Contaminated water
C) Contaminated food
D) Direct contact

Question 43

Impetigo is a very contagious superficial skin infection caused by:

A) Prevotella intermedia
B) Herpes simplex virus I
C) Epstein Barr virus
D) Streptococci or staphylococci

Question 44

Cancrum oris:

A) Progresses rapidly, often destroying the bones of the face
B) Typically begins within the tonsillar crypts
C) Is most prevalent in developed countries
D) Typically occurs in association with rampant caries.

Question 45

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) is best described as a(n):

A) Painful gingival infection that develops in a setting of emotional stress
B) Acute periodontal infection commonly seen in elderly patients
C) Chronic gingival infection frequently present in children
D) Chronic periodontal infection caused by poor oral hygiene

Question 46

What causes the scaling and desquamation of skin seen in scarlet fever?

A) Streptococci attacking the basement membrane of the epithelium
B) Toxin produced by group A β-hemolytic streptococci
C) Toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus
D) Systemic reaction to penicillin

Question 47

Potential complications of streptococcal pharyngitis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Scarlet fever
B) Rheumatic fever
C) Peritonsillar abscess
D) Bullous impetigo

Question 48

Nonbullous impetigo usually spreads through:

A) Close contact with infected persons
B) Contaminated water
C) Sneezing and coughing
D) The oral-fecal route

Question 49

The most diagnostic feature of scarlet fever is:

A) A white coating of the dorsal tongue
B) A red coating of the dorsal tongue
C) Skin rash
D) Extreme fever and malaise

Question 50

Which of the following types of bacteria is NOT commonly associated with Vincent's infection?

A) Treponema
B) Prevotella
C) Fusobacterium
D) Salmonella

Question 51

Which antibiotic is frequently prescribed for confirmed cases of streptococcal infections?

A) Nystatin
B) Acyclovir
C) Penicillin
D) Acetaminophen

Question 52

All of the following are true about Actinomycosis EXCEPT:

A) It is an opportunistic fungal infection.
B) It spreads to adjacent tissues by direct extension.
C) The microorganisms are members of the resident oral microflora.
D) Two-thirds of the cases are diagnosed in the head and neck region.

Question 53

The most common location for cervicofacial actinomycosis is:

A) The condyle of the mandible
B) Soft tissue overlying the posterior maxilla
C) Soft tissue overlying the angle of the mandible
D) The anterior mandible

Question 54

Complications of diphtheria include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Myocarditis
B) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C) Neuropathy
D) Airway obstruction

Question 55

The face is involved in what percent of patients with erysipelas?

A) Less than 5%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) Greater than 75%

Question 56

The recommended treatment for patients with Erysipelas includes:

A) Incision and drainage of affected areas
B) Antiviral medications
C) Topical antifungals
D) Systemic antibiotics

Question 57

The etiologic microorganisms in Noma are:

A) Components of the virulent bacterial group streptococci
B) Components of normal resident flora of the host
C) Treponema pallidum and mycobacterium
D) Unrelated to the resident flora of the host

Question 58

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is most likely to occur in:

A) Adults over 65 years
B) Adults 25-44 years
C) Children 7-12 years
D) Infants and newborns

Question 59

Sulfur granules are present during which stage of an actinomycotic infection?

A) Fibrotic
B) Incubative
C) Prodromal
D) Suppurative

Question 60

Signs and symptoms of pharyngitis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Dysphagia
B) Fever
C) Cervical lymphadenopathy
D) Scoliosis

Question 61

Cat scratches located on the face often result in:

A) Chronic ulceration and paresthesia
B) Facial nerve paralysis
C) Occipital lymph node swelling
D) Submandibular lymphadenopathy

Question 62

The most commonly prescribed antifungal medications include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Erythromycin
B) Nystatin
C) Systemic Fluconazole
D) Clotrimazole troches

Question 63

How do most patients acquire aspergillosis?

A) As a nosocomial infection
B) From contaminated dental instruments
C) From direct contact with an infected individual
D) As a result of contact with contaminated water

Question 64

Extrapulmonary TB in the head and neck region most often occurs in the:

A) Cervical lymph nodes
B) Soft tissues of the pharynx
C) Bone of the mandible
D) Bone of the maxilla

Question 65

Cat scratch disease may be confirmed by serological testing for antibodies to:

A) Corynebacterium
B) Bartonella henselae
C) Porphyromonas gingivalis
D) Prevotella intermedia

Question 66

Central papillary atrophy is also known as:

A) Median rhomboid glossitis
B) Hairy tongue
C) Geographic tongue
D) Denture stomatitis

Question 67

All of the following are complications of tertiary syphilis EXCEPT:

A) Congestive heart failure
B) Mucous patches
C) Psychoses
D) Aortic aneurysm

Question 68

All of the following are considered predisposing factors for the reactivation of TB EXCEPT:

A) Immunosuppression
B) AIDS
C) Rheumatic fever
D) Advanced age

Question 69

Active tuberculosis (TB) develops in what percentage of infected individuals?

A) 85%-90%
B) 65%-70%
C) 25%-30%
D) 5%-10%

Question 70

All of the following are features of Hutchinson's triad EXCEPT:

A) Gummas
B) Ocular interstitial keratitis
C) Eighth cranial nerve deafness
D) Hutchinson's incisors and mulberry molars

Question 71

Hansen's disease is caused by which of the following organisms?

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Bartonella henselae
C) Mycobacterium leprae
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 72

The first presenting signs of cat scratch disease generally occur within:

A) 2 days
B) 2 weeks
C) 2 months
D) 2 years

Question 73

Angular cheilitis is:

A) Closely related to vitamin K deficiency
B) Most often caused by infection with Candida albicans or Staphylococcus aureus
C) Related to secondary herpes zoster infection
D) Associated with increased vertical dimension of occlusion and bruxism

Question 74

All of the following are true about primary syphilis EXCEPT:

A) A painless ulcer called a chancre develops.
B) The lesion of primary syphilis occurs at the anatomic site of exposure.
C) The patient is not contagious.
D) The oral cavity is the second most common extragenital location for lesions to develop.

Question 75

Which of the following is the most common superficial fungal infection seen in the oral cavity?

A) Histoplasmosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Actinomycosis
D) Impetigo

Question 76

All of the following statements are true about rhinocerebral mucormycosis EXCEPT:

A) Poorly controlled insulin-dependent diabetics are at risk.
B) Cranial nerve involvement can occur.
C) Amphotericin B is the recommended treatment.
D) High-dose penicillin regimen is the recommended treatment.

Question 77

Valley fever is a hypersensitivity reaction that occurs in approximately 40% of persons with:

A) Cryptococcosis
B) Coccidioidomycosis
C) Aspergillosis
D) Blastomycosis

Question 78

Histoplasmosis is best described as a(n):

A) Oral fungal infection caused by ill-fitting dentures
B) Systemic fungal infection common in humid geographic locations
C) Systemic bacterial infection easily transmitted from person to person
D) Oral viral infection that is spread via kissing

Question 79

Active sites of granulomatous inflammation called gummas are a complication associated with:

A) Primary syphilis
B) Secondary syphilis
C) Tertiary syphilis
D) Congenital syphilis

Question 80

White, cottage cheese-like plaques that can be wiped off are characteristic of which of the following conditions?

A) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
B) Strawberry tongue
C) Pseudomembranous candidiasis
D) Impetigo