Deck 2: Orofacial Injury and Reactive Disorders

Question 1

Metastatic calcification is associated with all EXCEPT:

A) Renal failure
B) Vitamin D disorders
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Hypercalcemia

Answer 1

Hypothyroidism

Question 2

Which of the following is best classified as a physical trauma?

A) Surgical trauma
B) Infection
C) Exposure to a caustic agent
D) Burn

Answer 2

Surgical trauma

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A) Heat
B) Swelling
C) Infection
D) Pain

Answer 3

Infection

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of chronic inflammation?

A) Proliferation of cells
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Neovascularization
D) New connective tissue

Question 5

Increased size of the shoulder muscles in a weight-lifter is an example of:

A) Pathological hypertrophy
B) Pathological hyperplasia
C) Physiological hyperplasia
D) Physiological hypertrophy

Question 6

The transformation of the normal ciliated columnar epithelium of the respiratory tract to stratified squamous epithelium in response to the stress of chronic exposure to tobacco smoke is an example of:

A) Anaplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Neoplasia
D) Desmoplasia

Question 7

Senescence refers to the:

A) Free radical formation leading to cell death
B) Areas of necrosis when blood calcium levels are elevated
C) Areas of necrosis when blood calcium is at normal levels
D) Fixed number of normal divisions before cells die

Question 8

The response to a stimulus in which there is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the number of cells is known as:

A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Dystrophy
D) Aplasia

Question 9

An abnormally large amount of leakage of fluid from the bloodstream into the surrounding tissues causing tissue distortion is known as:

A) Agglutination
B) Opsonization
C) Migration
D) Edema

Question 10

Hemosiderin is a pigment derived from hemoglobin and contains:

A) Ferric oxide
B) Ferric sulphate
C) Copper chloride
D) Silver dibromide

Question 11

An increase in size of a body part or tissue due to the increase in the size of individual cells is known as:

A) Hyperplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Atrophy

Question 12

Melanocytes are located in which layer of the epithelium?

A) Keratin layer
B) Granular layer
C) Spinous layer
D) Basal layer

Question 13

Loss of filiform papillae on the tongue following a long-standing fungal infection is considered an example of:

A) Pathological atrophy
B) Physiological aplasia
C) Pathological metaplasia
D) Physiological atrophy

Question 14

Tissues take on a "cheese-like" appearance in which of the following forms of necrosis?

A) Fat necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Coagulative necrosis
D) Caseous necrosis

Question 15

The process of programmed or planned cell death is called:

A) Apoptosis
B) Aplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Anaplasia

Question 16

Kallidin is a blood protein that serves to dilate blood vessels and is part of the:

A) Central nervous system
B) Kinin system
C) Fibrinolytic system
D) Complement system

Question 17

Restriction in blood supply generally due to damaged blood vessels is called:

A) Necrosis
B) Ischemia
C) Hypoplasia
D) Hyperplasia

Question 18

Narrowing of blood vessels and signal transmission between nerve cells is facilitated by:

A) Serotonin
B) Plasma proteases
C) Histamine
D) Thrombin

Question 19

Hypoxic damage of the kidney is a classic example of:

A) Fibrinoid necrosis
B) Caseous necrosis
C) Coagulative necrosis
D) Liquefactive necrosis

Question 20

Free radicals can form after exposure to all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Radiation
B) Antioxidants
C) Tobacco smoke
D) Environmental toxins

Question 21

Oral postinflammatory pigmentation is associated with which of the following disorders?

A) Oral lichen planus
B) Tetanus
C) Polio
D) Herpes simplex

Question 22

Smoker's melanosis is a condition of excessive melanin pigmentation found in the gingiva of what percentage of smokers?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%

Question 23

The most common location in the oral cavity for a pyogenic granuloma is on the:

A) Gingiva
B) Tonsillar pillars
C) Anterior tongue
D) Junction of hard and soft palate

Question 24

Macrophages present in connective tissue are also known as:

A) Histiocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Platelets
D) Erythrocytes

Question 25

Surgical and trauma cases where there is removal of significant portions of tissue without infection result in what type of healing?

A) Primary intention
B) Approximate intention
C) Secondary intention
D) Tertiary intention

Question 26

Platelets make an important contribution in injury, inflammation, and repair by playing a role in all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Binding immune complexes
B) Production of antibodies
C) Enhancing vascular permeability
D) Coagulation cascade

Question 27

Hyperkeratotic lesions appear white due to absorption of:

A) Moisture
B) Hemosiderin
C) Serum
D) White blood cells

Question 28

Amalgam tattoos in the mouth can be a result of all the following EXCEPT:

A) Placement or removal of amalgam restorations
B) Fracture of dental amalgams via trauma or tooth extraction
C) Endodontic treatment that involved placing amalgam at the apex of the tooth
D) Accidental implantation of graphite from a pencil

Question 29

Eosinophils form the first line of defense against parasites using:

A) IgG receptors
B) IgM receptors
C) IgE receptors
D) IgA receptors

Question 30

Which of the following converts fibrinogen to fibrin to assist in clot formation?

A) Serotonin
B) Heparin
C) Thrombin
D) Bradykinin

Question 31

Neutrophils, considered the first line of defense in acute inflammation, comprise what percentage of circulating leukocytes?

A) 30%-40%
B) 50%-70%
C) 5%-10%
D) 20%-25%

Question 32

Which of the following best describes how polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils) stain?

A) They lack staining.
B) They stain red.
C) They stain blue.
D) They stain brown.

Question 33

Melanoacanthosis is seen almost exclusively in people of which descent?

A) Caucasian
B) Asian
C) African
D) Latino

Question 34

Corticosteroids are produced by the adrenal gland in response to stress. Which of the following is NOT a function of this hormone?

A) Increases blood glucose
B) Aids in carbohydrate metabolism
C) Activates the immune system
D) Suppresses the immune system

Question 35

Which of the following are the precursor cells for mast cells?

A) Eosinophils
B) Neurophils
C) Macrophages
D) Basophils

Question 36

Wounds infected with microorganisms result in what type of healing?

A) Primary intention
B) Extravasation
C) Secondary intention
D) Tertiary intention

Question 37

Linea alba is a specific form of frictional keratosis that is seen as a thin, slightly raised white keratotic line on the:

A) Hard palate
B) Buccal mucosa
C) Floor of the mouth
D) Tongue

Question 38

Healing associated with a paper cut is commonly classified as healing by:

A) Primary intention
B) Secondary intention
C) Tertiary intention
D) Subtraction

Question 39

Morsicatio labiorum is a form of frictional keratosis caused by habitual chewing or nibbling on the:

A) Tongue
B) Buccal mucosa
C) Lips
D) Hard palate

Question 40

Formation of tiny new vascular channels to aid in reconstruction after injury is known as:

A) Fibrinolysis
B) Anticoagulation
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Neovascularization

Question 41

What percentage of necrotizing sialometaplasia is associated with minor salivary glands in the posterior hard palate region?

A) 10%
B) 40%
C) 75%
D) 90%

Question 42

Erythema migrans (geographic tongue) commonly affects the:

A) Fungiform papillae
B) Filiform papillae
C) Circumvallate papillae
D) Foliate papillae

Question 43

The calcification present in peripheral ossifying fibromas is primarily deposited by:

A) Cementoblasts
B) Osteoblasts
C) Ameloblasts
D) Osteoclasts

Question 44

Sialoliths obstructing the Wharton's duct are present in which salivary gland?

A) Sublingual
B) Parotid
C) Glands of Blandin-Nuhn
D) Submandibular

Question 45

Superficial mucoceles are typically caused by:

A) Blockage of salivary duct
B) Rupture of salivary duct
C) Dilatation of salivary duct
D) Mucosal inflammation

Question 46

Anesthetic necrosis is an unusual traumatic ulceration seen in patients who receive an anesthetic injection for dental procedures and typically occurs adjacent to the:

A) Mental foramen
B) Incisive foramen
C) Mandibular foramen
D) Greater palatine foramen

Question 47

Chronic traumatic ulcers called traumatic ulcerative granuloma develop raised, rolled borders and often mimic:

A) Pyogenic granulomas
B) Frictional keratosis
C) Oral cancer
D) Lichen planus

Question 48

Epulis granulomatosa is always associated with:

A) A nonhealing extraction site
B) A healing extraction site
C) Chronically infected teeth
D) Nonvital teeth

Question 49

Which of the following may produce resorption of underlying bone with a cupped pattern observed radiographically?

A) Pyogenic granuloma
B) Operculum
C) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
D) Epulis granulomatosa

Question 50

Three of the following lesions all have similar clinical features in the oral cavity. Which of the following is NOT one of The Three Ps?

A) Pyogenic granuloma
B) Epulis granulomatosa
C) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
D) Peripheral giant cell granuloma

Question 51

Cysts of Blandin-Nuhn are located on the:

A) Labial lip mucosa
B) Anterior ventral surface of the tongue
C) Anterior dorsal surface of the tongue
D) Posterior floor of the mouth

Question 52

All the following medications are implicated in drug-induced gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT:

A) Aspirin
B) Phenytoin
C) Cyclosporin
D) Nifedipine

Question 53

Patients who misuse tablets or powders that contain acetylsalicylic acid by placing them directly on their oral tissues may experience an ulceration that is best described as a(n):

A) Chemical burn
B) Electric burn
C) Thermal burn
D) Idiopathic burn

Question 54

Granuloma gravidarum are pyogenic granulomas observed in:

A) Elderly women
B) Children and adolescents
C) Infants
D) Pregnant women

Question 55

Erupting teeth may be partially covered by a flap or hood of fibrotic tissue known as an operculum. This phenomenon is most often seen with:

A) Maxillary incisors
B) Mandibular premolars
C) Maxillary premolars
D) Mandibular molars

Question 56

A common intraoral site for traumatic ulcers is the:

A) Hard palate
B) Lateral border of the tongue
C) Attached gingiva
D) Floor of the mouth

Question 57

The best method to diagnose any pigmented lesion other than amalgam tattoo is:

A) Biopsy
B) Cytological smear
C) Brush biopsy
D) Radiographs

Question 58

Verruciform xanthoma is a form of epithelial hyperplasia frequently misdiagnosed clinically as a:

A) Papilloma
B) Pyogenic granuloma
C) Fibroma
D) Traumatic eosinophilic ulceration

Question 59

Mucous extravasation phenomenon of the minor salivary glands is most commonly referred to as a:

A) Pyogenic granuloma
B) Mucocele
C) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
D) Ranula

Question 60

Salivary gland duct cyst is a mucous retention phenomenon. It is also called:

A) Sialocyst
B) Sialoliths
C) Sialogogues
D) Sialorrhea

Question 61

Ludwig's angina is generally associated with an infection in the:

A) Mandibular arch
B) Maxillary arch
C) Hard palate
D) Soft palate

Question 62

Bisphosphonate therapy is used in the treatment of all of the following bone-related conditions EXCEPT:

A) Paget disease
B) Periapical cemental dysplasia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Multiple myeloma

Question 63

All the following are associated with denture stomatitis EXCEPT:

A) Poor denture hygiene
B) Adenomatoid hyperplasia
C) Candida albicans infection
D) Allergic reaction to denture material

Question 64

Osteomyelitis can result from all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Dental infections
B) Radiation therapy
C) Subpontine hyperostosis
D) Neoplastic conditions

Question 65

In the maxilla, an untreated dental abscess can spread to the cavernous sinus of the brain and result in a life-threatening condition known as:

A) Orofacial fistula.
B) Ludwig's angina
C) Infarction of Thoreau
D) Cerebral infarction

Question 66

Chronic hyperplasic pulpitis is typically present in molars of children with:

A) Premature closure of the apical foramen
B) Immature root formation (open apical foramen)
C) Pulpal necrosis
D) Pulp stones

Question 67

A fragment of necrotic bone surrounded by vital bone is known as:

A) Periostitis
B) A sequestrum
C) Osteomyelitis
D) An involucrum

Question 68

An abnormal channel originating deep within tissues and extending to the epithelial or mucosal surface is known as a(n):

A) Sinus tract
B) Ulcer
C) Fibroepithelial polyp
D) Parulis

Question 69

Early lesions of cemento-osseous dysplasia often mimic periapical pathology. The difference is that in cemento-osseous dysplasia:

A) Dental abscess is the most prominent feature.
B) The teeth are vital.
C) Osteomyelitis does not occur.
D) Ankylosis is the most prominent feature.

Question 70

Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia is a form of denture stomatitis that most frequently occurs:

A) As an allergic response to cinnamon or mint flavorings
B) On the soft palate
C) In association with an ill-fitting lower denture
D) On the hard palate under complete upper or partial dentures

Question 71

Localized areas of bone sclerosis or scarring adjacent to teeth with large caries or extensive restorations are known as:

A) Bony sequestra
B) Condensing osteitis
C) Osteoradionecrosis
D) Ankylosis

Question 72

Denticles are comprised of dentin with tubules surrounded by:

A) Ameloblasts
B) Cementoblasts
C) Fibroblasts
D) Odontoblasts

Question 73

All the following are stages in cemento-osseous dysplasia EXCEPT:

A) Maturation stage
B) Osteolytic stage
C) Cementoblastic stage
D) Osteoblastic stage

Question 74

Noninflammatory salivary gland enlargement generally associated with underlying systemic factors including endocrine disorders such as diabetes is known as:

A) Sialadenosis
B) Sialolithiasis
C) Sialorrhea
D) Benign sialometaplasia

Question 75

Apical scars most often occur as radiolucent lesions around the apices of teeth with a history of:

A) Pulpal necrosis
B) Root end resection and fill
C) Abscess
D) Cellulitis

Question 76

Fusion of cementum on tooth roots to the surrounding alveolar bone is called:

A) Ankylosis
B) Condensing cementitis
C) Ankyloglossia
D) Sclerosis

Question 77

Apical and lateral radicular cysts are commonly indicative of:

A) Apical scar formation
B) Abscess
C) Nonvital teeth
D) Space infections

Question 78

Ill-fitting dentures can result in all the following EXCEPT:

A) Sialadenosis
B) Fibroepithelial polyp
C) Epulis fissuratum
D) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

Question 79

Cemento-osseous dysplasia involving two or more quadrants is known as:

A) Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
B) Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
C) Peripheral cemento-osseous dysplasia
D) Periapical cemental dysplasia

Question 80

Periapical cemental dysplasia is:

A) A large cemento-osseous dysplasia
B) A serious disorder with possible severe health consequences
C) Closely resembles bone cancer.
D) Located around the roots of the mandibular anterior teeth