Deck 5: Ecosystems and Living Organisms

Question 1

All of the following are examples of mutualism except:

A) reef-building corals and zooxanthellae.
B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria and legumes.
C) trees and epiphytes.
D) flowers and bees.
E) mycorrhizae.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following characteristics would easily identify a prokaryotic organism?

A) lack a nuclear envelope and other internal cell membranes.
B) able to photosynthesize
C) multicellular
D) ingest food and then digest it within their bodies
E) only found in oxygen-deficient environments

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Which of the following characteristics is used to identify members of the Kingdom Animalia?

A) lack a nuclear envelope and other internal cell membranes.
B) use radiant energy to synthesize organic molecules
C) ingest food and digest it internally
D) secrete digestive enzymes into their food and then absorb the pre-digested nutrients
E) locomotion

Answer 3

C

Question 4

An organism's role, or lifestyle, within the structure of an ecosystem is its:

A) habitat.
B) trophic level.
C) symbiotic relationship.
D) ecological niche.
E) limiting resource.

Question 5

The interdependent evolution of two interacting species is known as:

A) natural selection.
B) ecology.
C) coevolution.
D) mutualism.
E) herbivory.

Question 6

Which of the following characterizes a symbiotic relationship?

A) a close interrelationship where both species benefit
B) a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected
C) a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is adversely affected
D) a coevolved relationship between members of two or more species
E) All of these choices are correct

Question 7

Individuals within a population each have a unique combination of traits due to:

A) overproduction.
B) evolution.
C) genetic variation.
D) differential reproductive success.
E) natural selection.

Question 8

Keystone species:

A) are only found in aquatic habitats.
B) are always found at the top of the food chain.
C) are usually not the most abundant species in the ecosystem.
D) are vital to the soil balance of an entire ecosystem.
E) are typically symbiotic.

Question 9

An ecological description of a species typically includes:

A) whether it is a producer, consumer, or decomposer
B) the kinds of symbiotic associations it forms
C) whether it is a predator and/or prey
D) what species it competes with
E) all of these choices are correct

Question 10

Competition occurs when:

A) one organism, the predator, attempts to consume another , the prey.
B) two species in different habitats have similar niches.
C) two or more species attempt to use an essential common resource.
D) two or more species have an ecological relationship.
E) symbiotic organisms interact.

Question 11

Which of the following represents the sequence of primary succession on a sand dune?

A) lichens → mosses → grasses → shrubs → trees
B) crabgrass → weeds → oak trees → pine trees
C) crabgrass → horseweed → weeds → pine trees → hardwood trees
D) grasses → shrubs → poplars → pine trees → oak trees
E) grasses → shrubs → pine trees → poplars → hardwood trees

Question 12

The mechanism of natural selection involves all of the following except:

A) overproduction within a species.
B) limits on population growth.
C) genetic variation.
D) differential reproductive success.
E) a stable community structure.

Question 13

Secondary succession:

A) leads to a stable, persistent community.
B) reaches completion in about 15 years.
C) occurs in areas lacking vegetation where soil is present.
D) typically begins with lichens.
E) would occur on a sand dune.

Question 14

Symbiosis is the result of coevolution. Coevolution is the result of the interdependent evolution of:

A) two interacting species
B) similar organisms whose members freely interbreed in the wild
C) a single species producing more offspring than will survive
D) species that lack a nuclear membrane and other internal cell membranes
E) two individuals within a single species

Question 15

Which of the following organisms would be members of a pioneer community on bare rock?

A) grass
B) lichens
C) herbs
D) moss
E) trees

Question 16

Which of the following is an area where primary succession is likely to occur?

A) a sand dune along a lakeshore
B) an area that has been clear-cut
C) an area that was recently burned
D) an abandoned field
E) an area cleared by a tornado

Question 17

Mycorrhizae help plants:

A) to absorb water.
B) to convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates.
C) to repel insects.
D) to resist disease organisms.
E) to absorb essential nutrient minerals.

Question 18

In a parasitic relationship where the host contracts a disease and sometimes dies, the parasite is called a(n):

A) predator.
B) keystone species.
C) mutualistic symbiont.
D) interspecific competitor.
E) pathogen.

Question 19

The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed in The Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection (1859) written by:

A) G. F. Gause
B) Rachel Carson
C) Ponce de Leon
D) Charles Darwin
E) Aristotle

Question 20

Predation can be defined as:

A) two or more individuals attempting to use an essential common resource.
B) one organism consuming another organism, which may be a plant or animal.
C) organisms living together.
D) a relationship where one organism benefits and the other is adversely affected.
E) a relationship that only exerts selective (evolutionary) force on the prey.

Question 21

Because of their large size and aggressive nature, European Starlings have displaced Bluebirds from their nests in many areas of North America. This is an example of:

A) Commensalism
B) Parasitism
C) Mutualism
D) Predation
E) Competition

Question 22

An anglerfish possesses a luminescent lure close to its mouth to attract prey. This is an example of what type of predator behavior?

A) symbiosis
B) competition
C) pursuit
D) ambush
E) warning coloration

Question 23

Which of the following traits is not a defense used by plants against herbivores?

A) assembling in groups
B) toxins
C) spines or thorns
D) thick wax layer
E) noxious chemicals

Question 24

The reason(s) that tropical regions of the world have such high biodiversity is:

A) because they are geologically stable.
B) because they have a high productivity.
C) because there are many ecological niches.
D) All of these choices are correct
E) None of these choices is correct

Question 25

Which of the following is an example of coevolution?

A) plants and carnivores
B) fig trees and insect-eating birds
C) sea urchins and orcas
D) flowering plants and their pollinators
E) None of these choices is correct

Question 26

All of the following traits are characteristic of the adaptations of prey except:

A) having a large brain size in comparison to body mass.
B) having the appearance of twigs or leaves.
C) warning coloration.
D) assembling in herds, schools, or other types of animal groups.
E) producing toxins.

Question 27

If each breeding pair of elephants produces 6 offspring during a 90-year life span, in 750 years, a single pair of elephants will have given rise to a population of 19 million elephants. Yet elephants have not overrun the planet. WHY?

A) Elephants have a niche that expands with the population
B) Elephants produce more offspring than will survive to maturity
C) Most elephants are kept in captivity (circus & zoo) and not allowed to reproduce
D) Individual elephants in a population exhibit no variation, reducing their reproductive success
E) Elephants have become geographically separated into separate species that cannot interbreed

Question 28

Which of the following does not correctly pair the ecosystem with a service it provides?

A) forests - absorb carbon dioxide
B) coasts - provide a buffer against storms
C) grasslands - dilute and remove pollutants
D) freshwater systems - moderate water flow
E) sustainable agriculture systems - produce and maintain soil

Question 29

The number of species in a community can depend on:

A) the geological history of the region.
B) the productivity of the ecosystem.
C) the abundance of ecological niches.
D) the stability of the ecosystem.
E) All of these choices are correct

Question 30

The realized niche for the green anole differs from its fundamental niche because of:

A) competition.
B) symbiosis.
C) disease.
D) coevolution.
E) unlimited food supply.

Question 31

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Predation only favors the predator, leading to evolution of more efficient ways to catch prey.
B) Predation only favors the prey, leading to evolution of more efficient ways to escape predators.
C) Predation exerts a selective force on the prey, favoring characteristics that reduce the probability of capture.
D) Predation exerts a selective force on the predator, favoring characteristics that reduce the probability of prey capture.
E) Predation has no evolutionary consequences for either the predator or the prey.

Question 32

All of the following traits are characteristic of predators except:

A) having a large brain size in relationship to body mass.
B) speed.
C) camouflage.
D) assembling in packs or other types of animal groups.
E) having spines or other mechanical defensive devices.

Question 33

The relationship between silverfish and army ants is an example of:

A) parasitism.
B) mutualism.
C) commensalism.
D) competitive exclusion.
E) predation.

Question 34

Which of the following best illustrates the process of evolution?

A) A lizard's color becomes brown as it sits on a log
B) A bear goes into hibernation
C) A plant loses its leaves in a drought
D) A population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticide
E) A population of foxes increases as more prey becomes available

Question 35

Which of the following is not an adaptation to improve the efficiency of prey capture?

A) ambush
B) warning coloration
C) camouflage
D) pursuit speed
E) intelligence

Question 36

The relationship between a tick and a dog is an example of:

A) parasitism.
B) mutualism.
C) commensalism.
D) an epiphytic organism and its host.
E) predation.

Question 37

Which of the following terms encompasses all of the other terms?

A) parasitism
B) symbiosis
C) commensalism
D) mutualism
E) co-evolution

Question 38

Resource partitioning can be accomplished through all of the following except:

A) selection of different varieties of prey.
B) changing the time of day during which a particular species is active.
C) changing the season during which a given species is present in a given habitat.
D) increasing niche overlap.
E) selection of different nesting sites.

Question 39

The relationship exemplified by bees consuming nectar and carrying pollen from one flower to another is known as:

A) Commensalism
B) Parasitism
C) Mutualism
D) Predation
E) Competition

Question 40

Which of the following is an adaptation of flowers resulting from the coevolution of plants and pollinators?

A) mycorrhizae
B) nectar
C) epiphytes
D) nitrogen fixing bacteria
E) zooxanthellae

Question 41

Limits set by a surrounding environment on reproduction are called

A) biotic potential.
B) environmental resistance.
C) natural increase.
D) demographics.
E) doubling time.

Question 42

The potential ecological niche of an organism is its _______, while the niche an organism actually occupies is its ________.

A) realized niche; fundamental niche
B) fundamental niche; realized niche
C) kinetic niche; latent niche
D) genuine niche; probable niche
E) competitive niche; passive niche

Question 43

Small plants attaching to the bark of larger trees benefit from the position on the tree, receiving necessary water and sunlight while giving the tree neither help nor harm. This is an example of…

A) environmental stressors
B) Mycorrhizae
C) habitat fragmentation
D) commensalism
E) none of these choices is correct

Question 44

What are the three kinds of symbiosis?

A) warning colors, mutualism, and cannibalism
B) mutualism, parasitism, and commensalism
C) competition, predation, and coevolution
D) epiphytes, prokaryotes, and eukaryotes
E) none of these choices is correct

Question 45

What is the transitional zone where two or more communities meet?

A) edge effect
B) ecotone
C) resource partition
D) keystone habitat
E) competitive exclusion

Question 46

Populations that are growing at their intrinsic rate of increase:

A) exhibit logistic growth.
B) exhibit exponential growth.
C) double in size every year.
D) mutate rapidly.
E) have no impact on their environment.

Question 47

Which of the following statements about population ecology is true?

A) Population ecology only deals with declining populations that are in need of intervention in order to survive.
B) Population ecology focuses on individuals and their interactions, but not the abiotic environment.
C) Population ecology attempts to explain how and why the number of individuals changes over time.
D) Population ecology is not important to scientists in applied disciplines, such as wildlife management.
E) Population ecology deals with organisms in nature, but cannot be applied to the study of human populations.

Question 48

Which term defines competition between species?

A) commensalism
B) intraspecific competition
C) predation
D) competitive exclusion
E) interspecific competition

Question 49

Which of the following is the best example of primary succession?

A) a forest develops on abandoned farmland
B) a forest develops on the edge of a retreating glacier
C) a forest develops in the area of a forest fire
D) a forest develops in the area of a devastating flood
E) a forest develops on the site of a logging operation

Question 50

Which of the following is a keystone species in U.S. temperate forests?

A) deer
B) white pine
C) gray wolves
D) lichen
E) rabbit

Question 51

The movement of individuals out of a population is:

A) natural increase.
B) emigration.
C) immigration.
D) dispersal.
E) carrying capacity.

Question 52

Population density is:

A) the total number of individuals.
B) the total number of individuals of a given species.
C) the total number of individuals per unit of area.
D) the total number of individuals of a given species per unit of area.
E) the total number of individuals of a given species per unit of area at a given time.

Question 53

Green anoles were forced out of their established habitat of trees, plants, walls and fences by invasive brown anoles. The green anoles then had to find new habitats in wetlands and tree crowns. This example illustrates the concept of:

A) competition
B) fundamental niche
C) realized niche
D) parasitism
E) both competition and realized niche

Question 54

The maximum number of individuals of a given species that a particular environment can support for an indefinite period, assuming there are no changes in the environment is called its

A) environmental resistance
B) intrinsic rate of increase
C) carrying capacity
D) sustainability
E) demography

Question 55

Which of the following is an area where primary succession would occur?

A) recently formed volcanic lava
B) a clear-cut area
C) an abandoned field
D) an area cleared by a tornado

Question 56

Which of the follow statements of why the Yellowstone wolf was declared an 'experimental nonessential' species in the area is true?
1) The ESA forbids killing an endangered species
2) There wasn't enough demand to keep the wolves on the endangered species list
3) Farmers and ranchers wanted the right to kill wolves to defend their livestock
4) Defenders of Wildlife didn't believe the wolves were endangered any longer

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 1 and 3

Question 57

The ability of a community to withstand environmental disturbances (community stability) is correlated with:

A) geographic size of community
B) power of keystone species
C) species richness
D) species poverty
E) sheer luck

Question 58

How did the discovery of genetic mutation contribute to the modern synthesis of evolution?

A) It explained patterns of inheritance
B) It demonstrated the true structure of DNA
C) It provided a mechanism by which genetic variation could be generated
D) It showed why reproductive success can vary among individuals
E) It illustrated that many more young are produced than can survive

Question 59

Which of the following organisms would be predicted to have the lowest intrinsic rate of increase?

A) bacteria
B) cats
C) cockroaches
D) mice
E) whales

Question 60

In order for every parasite to successfully reproduce, it must

A) live outside its host's body
B) live inside its host's body
C) do no harm to the host organism
D) kill the host organism
E) keep its host alive

Question 61

Which of the following scenarios is (are) likely to lead to creation of a metapopulation? The type of organism is listed first, followed by the change to its habitat.
1) Forest bird species; Large sections of a forest are cleared to construct residential subdivisions
2) Grassland small mammal species; Large areas of grassland are cleared and plowed for agriculture
3) River fish species; An industrial chemical spill causes a massive fish kill on the river

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1 and 2
E) All of the scenarios are likely to lead to a metapopulation

Question 62

Humans exhibit:

A) Type I survivorship
B) Type II survivorship
C) Type III survivorship
D) Type I survivorship in early life and type II in mid-life.
E) Type IV survivorship

Question 63

Features that are typical of r-selected species include all of the following except:

A) late reproduction.
B) small body size.
C) early maturity.
D) short life span.
E) large broods

Question 64

Define symbiosis. Identify and briefly describe the three different types of symbiotic relationships.

Question 65

All of the following are characteristics of an r-selected population EXCEPT:

A) It has a high intrinsic rate of growth.
B) The onset of reproduction is at an early age.
C) There is extensive parental care of offspring
D) It is likely to occur in variable environments
E) There are many offspring per reproductive event.

Question 66

Which of the following is true for Type III survivorship?

A) The probability of survival decreases with age.
B) The probability of survival increases with age.
C) It is characteristic of redwood trees.
D) It is characteristic of humans.
E) It is characteristic of adult gulls.

Question 67

Which of the following feature is typical of K-selected species?

A) early maturity
B) small body size
C) do not produce a large number of offspring
D) short life span
E) no parental care invested in the offspring

Question 68

Which of the following species is characterized by a boom-or-bust cycle?

A) whales
B) Paramecium
C) reindeer
D) lemmings
E) humans

Question 69

All of the following are examples of a density-independent factor affecting population growth EXCEPT:

A) fire.
B) blizzard.
C) hurricane.
D) food availability.
E) none of these choices is correct

Question 70

Which of these is not an example of a density-dependent factor affecting population growth?

A) competition
B) disease
C) climate
D) accumulation of body wastes
E) None of these choices, all are examples of density-dependent factors

Question 71

Define coevolution and list three examples.

Question 72

In the real world, many factors determine the numbers of organisms in any one population. Yet a SUPERFLY population with unlimited food and no mortality would show what types of growth?

A) exponential
B) logistic
C) linear
D) Malthusian
E) unpredictable

Question 73

In Type II survivorship:

A) the probability of survival decreases with age.
B) the probability of survival increases with age.
C) the probability of survival doesn't change with age.
D) the male dies more frequently than females.
E) the female dies more frequently than males.

Question 74

Define keystone species and discuss an example of an organism that is a keystone species.

Question 75

A dieback or population crash often occurs after a species ________ its environmental carrying capacity.

A) meets
B) undershoots
C) overshoots
D) oscillates around
E) reduces

Question 76

Which of the following populations would have a growth rate of zero?

A) b= 100, d=50. i=0, e=100
B) b= 100, d=50. i=50, e=100
C) b= 100, d=50. i=75, e=100
D) b= 100, d=50. i=100, e=100
E) b= 100, d=50. i=150, e=100

Question 77

What are the basic requirements for natural selection?

Question 78

Density-independent factors that regulate population size include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) drought
B) severe storms
C) supply of food
D) fire in a grassland biome
E) extreme cold, or moderate cold at an especially critical time of year

Question 79

Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor affecting population growth?

A) disease
B) the salinity of the soil
C) the amount of rainfall
D) temperature range
E) hurricane

Question 80

Factors that limit growth and produce population equilibrium are known as

A) predation conflicts
B) diebacks
C) biotic potential
D) environmental resistance
E) fertility factors