Deck 8: Compliance Plans
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Deck 8: Compliance Plans
1
It is important that the compliance plan includes a secure process for employees, vendors, and patients to report ________ without fear of repercussions.
A) compliant activities
B) technical glitches
C) alleged violations
D) excellent service
A) compliant activities
B) technical glitches
C) alleged violations
D) excellent service
alleged violations
2
It is a sign of ________ to explain the foundations of the policies to your staff.
A) weakness
B) contempt
C) respect
D) submissiveness
A) weakness
B) contempt
C) respect
D) submissiveness
respect
3
Once a breach is identified, you will need to:
A) Hide the documentation.
B) Fire everyone on the spot.
C) Ensure everyone is sworn to secrecy.
D) Determine the cause of the breach.
A) Hide the documentation.
B) Fire everyone on the spot.
C) Ensure everyone is sworn to secrecy.
D) Determine the cause of the breach.
Determine the cause of the breach.
4
Only Medicare-participating hospitals must comply with the terms of:
A) The HIPAA Privacy Rule.
B) EMTALA.
C) The federal false claims act.
D) The HIPAA Security Rule.
A) The HIPAA Privacy Rule.
B) EMTALA.
C) The federal false claims act.
D) The HIPAA Security Rule.
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5
A reporting system to permit staff to report an alleged violation might include:
A) Voluntary DNA tests.
B) Hotline phone number.
C) A "tattler" t-shirt.
D) All of the above.
A) Voluntary DNA tests.
B) Hotline phone number.
C) A "tattler" t-shirt.
D) All of the above.
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6
In those cases when an employee does not comply, policies should clearly state:
A) Consequences.
B) Accolades.
C) Bonus schedule.
D) That no one should ever mention it.
A) Consequences.
B) Accolades.
C) Bonus schedule.
D) That no one should ever mention it.
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7
Conducting regularly scheduled ________ will reveal any violations relating to billing and claims.
A) department meetings
B) audits
C) searches of desks
D) interrogations
A) department meetings
B) audits
C) searches of desks
D) interrogations
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8
External audits:
A) Are initiated by the facility administration.
B) Investigate the physical environment around the facility.
C) Evaluate air quality control.
D) Are initiated by a regulating authority.
A) Are initiated by the facility administration.
B) Investigate the physical environment around the facility.
C) Evaluate air quality control.
D) Are initiated by a regulating authority.
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9
The HITECH Breach of Notification Rule requires covered entities to report:
A) All accusations of impermissible use of PHI.
B) The results of every internal audit.
C) Impermissible use of protected health information (PHI).
D) The names of security personnel.
A) All accusations of impermissible use of PHI.
B) The results of every internal audit.
C) Impermissible use of protected health information (PHI).
D) The names of security personnel.
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10
A Qui Tam lawsuit is filed by a/n ________ against the accused institution on behalf of the government.
A) current or former employee
B) current or former patient
C) FBI agent
D) county prosecutor
A) current or former employee
B) current or former patient
C) FBI agent
D) county prosecutor
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11
Realistic objective monitoring devices might include:
A) Cameras in every corner of the office.
B) RFID chips in paper records.
C) An EHR log of who opens patient records.
D) b and c only.
A) Cameras in every corner of the office.
B) RFID chips in paper records.
C) An EHR log of who opens patient records.
D) b and c only.
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12
Organizational policies and procedures should provide your staff with:
A) Questions to ask about compliance.
B) Solid direction for compliance.
C) Ways around compliance.
D) Nothing about compliance.
A) Questions to ask about compliance.
B) Solid direction for compliance.
C) Ways around compliance.
D) Nothing about compliance.
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13
An appropriate consequence for breaching a policy may be:
A) Verbal warning.
B) Written warning.
C) Additional training/education.
D) Any of the above.
A) Verbal warning.
B) Written warning.
C) Additional training/education.
D) Any of the above.
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14
The key to managing a crisis effectively is:
A) Advance planning.
B) Offering safe harbor.
C) Immediate lock-down.
D) Never saying you're sorry.
A) Advance planning.
B) Offering safe harbor.
C) Immediate lock-down.
D) Never saying you're sorry.
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15
The process of obeying rules, regulations, and laws is known as:
A) Obedience.
B) Due diligence.
C) Compliance.
D) Qui tam.
A) Obedience.
B) Due diligence.
C) Compliance.
D) Qui tam.
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16
A migrating circumstance is one that:
A) Magnifies the consequences of a wrong.
B) Partially excuses a wrong.
C) Prevents wrong-doing.
D) Is cause for immediate termination.
A) Magnifies the consequences of a wrong.
B) Partially excuses a wrong.
C) Prevents wrong-doing.
D) Is cause for immediate termination.
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17
All compliance plans should include a clear explanation of the ________ for failing to follow the policies of the organization.
A) consequences
B) benefits
C) guidelines
D) support available
A) consequences
B) benefits
C) guidelines
D) support available
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18
The FSG include seven steps to ensure due diligence is done properly. In this context, FSG stands for:
A) Financial Security Guidelines.
B) Federal Safety Guidelines.
C) Federal Sentencing Guidelines.
D) Financial Sentencing Governance.
A) Financial Security Guidelines.
B) Federal Safety Guidelines.
C) Federal Sentencing Guidelines.
D) Financial Sentencing Governance.
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19
When an attitude of ________ is proliferated throughout the organization, everyone benefits and patient care is improved.
A) excellence
B) non-compliance
C) taking shortcuts
D) individual directions
A) excellence
B) non-compliance
C) taking shortcuts
D) individual directions
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20
Investigations initiated by the administration of the organization designed to identify quality as well as human error or wrong-doing are known as:
A) External audits.
B) Internal audits.
C) Employee reviews.
D) Due diligence.
A) External audits.
B) Internal audits.
C) Employee reviews.
D) Due diligence.
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21
Federal sentencing Guidelines may reduce fines and penalties by as much as ________ when a compliance plan has been created and implemented using the seven elements guidance.
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 55%
D) 70%
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 55%
D) 70%
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22
Good project management skills begin with:
A) An overview of the entire project.
B) Delegation of work tasks.
C) Creation of a timeline.
D) Establishing quality standards.
A) An overview of the entire project.
B) Delegation of work tasks.
C) Creation of a timeline.
D) Establishing quality standards.
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23
A reporting system should permit individuals to bring violations to the attention of the administrator:
A) With the intent to get someone fired.
B) Without fear of repercussion.
C) To get on your good side.
D) To avoid suspicion.
A) With the intent to get someone fired.
B) Without fear of repercussion.
C) To get on your good side.
D) To avoid suspicion.
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24
When there is need for corrective action with an employee, but there is benefit to retaining this individual on the staff, one punishment may be:
A) To ignore the event.
B) To give the employee a second chance.
C) Suspension without pay.
D) Promotion to a different department.
A) To ignore the event.
B) To give the employee a second chance.
C) Suspension without pay.
D) Promotion to a different department.
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25
A project management chart may be helpful, such as the PERT, which stands for
A) Project Efficiency and Report Timeline.
B) Program Effectiveness and Routine Tasks.
C) Program Evaluation and Review Technique.
D) Project Evaluation and Routine Timeline.
A) Project Efficiency and Report Timeline.
B) Program Effectiveness and Routine Tasks.
C) Program Evaluation and Review Technique.
D) Project Evaluation and Routine Timeline.
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