Deck 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Deck 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
1
Which insulin peaks in activity 2 to 3 hours after injection?
A) Lispro (Humalog)
B) Detemir (Levemir)
C) NPH
D) Regular
A) Lispro (Humalog)
B) Detemir (Levemir)
C) NPH
D) Regular
D
Explanation: Regular insulin is short-acting insulin that peaks within 2 to 3 hours of injection. Lispro is rapid-acting insulin that peaks within 1 to 2 hours. NPH is intermediate-acting insulin that peaks between 4 and 10 hours after injection. Detemir is long-acting insulin that stays in the blood system from 18 to 24 hours without a "peak" time of activity. Patients receiving detemir should be monitored 10 to 12 hours after injection for effects of the insulin.
Explanation: Regular insulin is short-acting insulin that peaks within 2 to 3 hours of injection. Lispro is rapid-acting insulin that peaks within 1 to 2 hours. NPH is intermediate-acting insulin that peaks between 4 and 10 hours after injection. Detemir is long-acting insulin that stays in the blood system from 18 to 24 hours without a "peak" time of activity. Patients receiving detemir should be monitored 10 to 12 hours after injection for effects of the insulin.
2
In the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT), which of the following was demonstrated?
A) Strict control of protein intake, particularly animal protein, improves glucose control.
B) Minimizing the number of meals and snacks per day decreases hyperglycemic episodes.
C) Strict control of carbohydrate intake, particularly simple sugars, improves glucose control.
D) Strict control of blood glucose reduces long-term complications of diabetes.
A) Strict control of protein intake, particularly animal protein, improves glucose control.
B) Minimizing the number of meals and snacks per day decreases hyperglycemic episodes.
C) Strict control of carbohydrate intake, particularly simple sugars, improves glucose control.
D) Strict control of blood glucose reduces long-term complications of diabetes.
D
Explanation: In the DCCT, subjects with type 1 diabetes mellitus were provided with either intensive treatment involving multiple insulin injections daily or conventional treatment with only one or two insulin injections daily. The subjects who monitored their blood glucose and used intensive insulin therapy experienced a 50% to 75% reduction in the risk progression of retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy. The trial did include prescribed meal plans but did not evaluate the effect of macronutrient content or number of meals on glucose control.
Explanation: In the DCCT, subjects with type 1 diabetes mellitus were provided with either intensive treatment involving multiple insulin injections daily or conventional treatment with only one or two insulin injections daily. The subjects who monitored their blood glucose and used intensive insulin therapy experienced a 50% to 75% reduction in the risk progression of retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy. The trial did include prescribed meal plans but did not evaluate the effect of macronutrient content or number of meals on glucose control.
3
Which of the following is NOT a microvascular disease associated with hyperglycemic patients?
A) Retinopathy
B) Neuropathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Peripheral vascular disease
A) Retinopathy
B) Neuropathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Peripheral vascular disease
D
Explanation: Microvascular diseases are ones that affect smaller blood vessels and nerves. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and nephropathy have been the three primary microvascular diseases that develop from uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Peripheral vascular disease is classified as a macrovascular disease because it involves larger blood vessels.
Explanation: Microvascular diseases are ones that affect smaller blood vessels and nerves. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and nephropathy have been the three primary microvascular diseases that develop from uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Peripheral vascular disease is classified as a macrovascular disease because it involves larger blood vessels.
4
What must a patient demonstrate to be a candidate for use of oral glucose-lowering medications?
A) Functioning alpha-cells in the pancreas
B) Functioning beta-cells in the pancreas
C) Functioning gastrointestinal mucosa
D) Resistance to insulin at all times
A) Functioning alpha-cells in the pancreas
B) Functioning beta-cells in the pancreas
C) Functioning gastrointestinal mucosa
D) Resistance to insulin at all times
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5
What condition occurs when rebound hyperglycemia follows an episode of hypoglycemia?
A) Somogyi effect
B) Cushing syndrome
C) Dawn phenomenon
D) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
A) Somogyi effect
B) Cushing syndrome
C) Dawn phenomenon
D) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
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6
What should the person with type 1 DM do when planning to exercise?
A) Strictly adhere to dietary restrictions.
B) Decrease insulin dosage dependence on duration and intensity of exercise.
C) Plan to exercise when the insulin is peaking.
D) Take an extra injection of insulin.
A) Strictly adhere to dietary restrictions.
B) Decrease insulin dosage dependence on duration and intensity of exercise.
C) Plan to exercise when the insulin is peaking.
D) Take an extra injection of insulin.
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7
Which of the following is one of the ADA's MNT goals for all people with diabetes?
A) Promote weight loss.
B) Achieve blood glucose control.
C) Limit dietary cholesterol.
D) Limit intake of simple carbohydrates.
A) Promote weight loss.
B) Achieve blood glucose control.
C) Limit dietary cholesterol.
D) Limit intake of simple carbohydrates.
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8
What is the recommendation for self-monitoring of blood glucose?
A) Every morning and every night before bed
B) When there is a change in activity level or diet
C) Four or more times daily for type 1 DM and one to four times for type 2 DM
D) At least eight times a day for type 1 DM
A) Every morning and every night before bed
B) When there is a change in activity level or diet
C) Four or more times daily for type 1 DM and one to four times for type 2 DM
D) At least eight times a day for type 1 DM
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9
What does insulin promote in regard to the metabolism of lipids?
A) Lipolysis in the liver
B) An increase in serum free fatty acids
C) Lipogenesis in the liver
D) The breakdown of fat stores in adipose tissue
A) Lipolysis in the liver
B) An increase in serum free fatty acids
C) Lipogenesis in the liver
D) The breakdown of fat stores in adipose tissue
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10
Screening for gestational diabetes should occur
A) when assessment of pregnancy is first established.
B) at 24 to 28 weeks' gestation.
C) 38 to 40 weeks after conception.
D) by the end of the first trimester.
A) when assessment of pregnancy is first established.
B) at 24 to 28 weeks' gestation.
C) 38 to 40 weeks after conception.
D) by the end of the first trimester.
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11
Which of the following contributes to the development of type 1 DM?
A) Autoantibodies that contribute to the destruction of beta-cells
B) Insulin resistance and beta-cell failure
C) Increase in insulin-antagonist hormone levels
D) Diet and sedentary lifestyle
A) Autoantibodies that contribute to the destruction of beta-cells
B) Insulin resistance and beta-cell failure
C) Increase in insulin-antagonist hormone levels
D) Diet and sedentary lifestyle
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12
Which of the following statements about glycemic index (GI) is TRUE?
A) Consuming low-GI meals (<70) improves overall glycemic control.
B) Specific carbohydrate foods can have a variable GI.
C) When compared with an equal amount of starch, sucrose promotes a greater glycemic response.
D) The GI of glucose is lower than the GI of white bread.
A) Consuming low-GI meals (<70) improves overall glycemic control.
B) Specific carbohydrate foods can have a variable GI.
C) When compared with an equal amount of starch, sucrose promotes a greater glycemic response.
D) The GI of glucose is lower than the GI of white bread.
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13
__________ is NOT a symptom of type 1 DM.
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Loss of thirst sensation
C) Weight loss
D) Polydipsia
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Loss of thirst sensation
C) Weight loss
D) Polydipsia
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14
If a patient with type 2 DM receives a nutrition prescription for a 2000-kcal diet, which of the following should be used?
A) 50% carbohydrate, 20% protein, 30% fat
B) 40% carbohydrate, 30% protein, 30% fat
C) 20% carbohydrate, 40% protein, 40% fat
D) A macronutrient distribution individualized based on the patient's metabolic profile
A) 50% carbohydrate, 20% protein, 30% fat
B) 40% carbohydrate, 30% protein, 30% fat
C) 20% carbohydrate, 40% protein, 40% fat
D) A macronutrient distribution individualized based on the patient's metabolic profile
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15
Which of the following is NOT a potential acute complication of type 1 DM?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Ketoacidosis
D) Blood vessel damage
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Ketoacidosis
D) Blood vessel damage
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16
How do sulfonylureas and meglitinides help to lower blood glucose levels?
A) Promoting beta-cell secretion of insulin
B) Decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell
C) Increasing glucose formation from liver glycogen
D) Decreasing deamination of protein
A) Promoting beta-cell secretion of insulin
B) Decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell
C) Increasing glucose formation from liver glycogen
D) Decreasing deamination of protein
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17
Which of the following criteria is NOT appropriate for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
A) Fasting plasma glucose of greater than 126 mg/dl
B) HbA1c of greater than 7.0%
C) Postload (2 hour) plasma glucose of 200 mg/dl or greater
D) All of the above
A) Fasting plasma glucose of greater than 126 mg/dl
B) HbA1c of greater than 7.0%
C) Postload (2 hour) plasma glucose of 200 mg/dl or greater
D) All of the above
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18
Which of the following would NOT result in postprandial (reactive) hypoglycemia?
A) Rapid glucose absorption
B) Excessive insulin secretion
C) Insufficient glucagon secretion
D) Excessive hepatic gluconeogenesis
A) Rapid glucose absorption
B) Excessive insulin secretion
C) Insufficient glucagon secretion
D) Excessive hepatic gluconeogenesis
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19
Which of the following is NOT true about amylin?
A) It is a glucoregulatory hormone.
B) It is produced in pancreatic beta-cells.
C) It counteracts the effects of insulin.
D) Deficiency is associated with TIDM.
A) It is a glucoregulatory hormone.
B) It is produced in pancreatic beta-cells.
C) It counteracts the effects of insulin.
D) Deficiency is associated with TIDM.
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