Deck 10: Laboratory Procedures

Question 1

When making a blood smear with a sample that is very thick and contains some small clots, you should:

A) increase the spreader slide angle to about 45°
B) decrease the spreader slide angle to about 20°
C) dilute the sample 2:1 with EDTA
D) make the smear from a fresh sample

Answer 1

decrease the spreader slide angle to about 20°

Question 2

When caring for microscopes, what should be used to clean the lens?

A) Water
B) Lens paper
C) Alcohol
D) Chlorhexidine

Answer 2

Lens paper

Question 3

Platelet clumps found at the feathered edge of a differential blood smear are referred to as:

A) milofilariae
B) aggregates
C) monolayers
D) segs

Answer 3

aggregates

Question 4

The preferred site for venipuncture when large amounts of blood are needed is the:

A) mammary vein
B) jugular vein
C) infraorbital sinus
D) tail vein

Question 5

OSHA mandates specific laboratory practices that must be incorporated into the:

A) MSDS
B) SOP
C) Hospital policy manual
D) Laboratory safety policy

Question 6

Albumin's main functions include:

A) acting as a transport and binding blood protein
B) synthesizing gamma globulins in plasma cells
C) maintaining osmotic pressure of plasma
D) A and C are correct

Question 7

This term refers to how close a test value is to the actual patient value.

A) Sensitivity
B) Specificity
C) Precision
D) Accuracy

Question 8

The WBC that responds to allergies and parasitic disease is the:

A) neutrophil
B) lymphocyte
C) eosinophil
D) monocyte

Question 9

Which method of blood smear preparation is often preferred for avian blood?

A) coverslip method
B) glass slide method
C) delayed method
D) wedge method

Question 10

When staining a wedge smear, methylene blue will stain hemoglobin and some WBC granules:

A) bluish-purple
B) reddish-purple
C) reddish-orange
D) yellowish-orange

Question 11

Which anticoagulant is preferred for routine hematologic studies because it preserves cell morphology?

A) Heparin
B) Sodium citrate
C) EDTA
D) Ammonium oxalate

Question 12

Which is more likely to be assessed by a veterinary hematology annalyzer?

A) Differential WBC
B) Polychromasia
C) Platelet clumps
D) Heinz bodies

Question 13

When making a wedge smear, hold the spreader slide at a ___-degree angle and pull back, spreading blood along the edge of the spreader slide.

A) 15
B) 20
C) 30
D) 45

Question 14

The function of lipase is to:

A) break down fatty acids of lipids
B) attach to the circulating red blood cells during inflammation
C) infiltrate the liver during liver failure
D) increase liver function

Question 15

A 12-hour fast is recommended for all animals before a blood glucose reading, except:

A) kittens
B) mature ruminants
C) small dogs
D) young ruminants

Question 16

Which leukocyte type is sometimes referred to as a polymorphonuclear cell?

A) Segmented neutrophil
B) Lymphocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Basophil

Question 17

This term refers to the reproducibility of a test result:

A) sensitivity
B) specificity
C) precision
D) accuracy

Question 18

Which of the following causes a false decrease in PCV?

A) Splenic contraction in an excited animal
B) Low blood-to-anticoagulant ratio
C) Shortened centrifuge time
D) Clots in the blood sample

Question 19

Which test of the coagulation system requires a blood tube containing diatomaceous earth?

A) Activated clotting time
B) Bleeding time
C) Whole blood clotting time
D) One-stage prothrombin time

Question 20

Platelets are derived from:

A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Megakaryocytes

Question 21

Which of the following sample times are ideal when collecting samples of blood?

A) Before an animal has eaten
B) While an animal is consuming food
C) 1 hour after food consumption
D) 5 hours after food consumption

Question 22

Heparin, when used as an anticoagulant, is found in which color of blood tube?

A) Purple
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Gray

Question 23

A refractometer should be calibrated with:

A) tap water.
B) distilled water.
C) alcohol.
D) refractometer calibrating solution.

Question 24

Shrinkage of red blood cells is also known as:

A) cytoplasmic vacuolation.
B) crenation.
C) change in cell membranes.
D) degeneration.

Question 25

A decrease in the number of platelets is:

A) pancytopenia
B) erythropenia
C) reticulocytosis
D) thrombocytopenia

Question 26

The most common inherited coagulation disorder of domestic animals is:

A) thrombocytopenia
B) hemophilia
C) anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
D) von Willebrand disease

Question 27

An increased PCV may be the result of:

A) dehydration or splenic contraction in an excited animal
B) excessive plasma because of inadequate mixing of the sample
C) low blood-to-anticoagulant ratio
D) anemia

Question 28

The correct term for the presence of pinpoint hemorrhage is:

A) ecchymoses
B) petechia
C) purpura
D) epistaxis

Question 29

The preferred site for venipuncture in dogs when small volumes are needed is the ___:

A) cephalic vein
B) jugular vein
C) saphenous vein
D) femoral vein

Question 30

Plasma that appears yellow tinged in a spun microhematocrit tube is referred to as:

A) icteric
B) hemolyzed
C) lipemic
D) polycythemic

Question 31

Patients with DIC often have evidence of ____ on the differential blood cell film.

A) schistocytes
B) FDPs
C) polycythemia
D) myeloproliferation

Question 32

Whole blood contains which of the following cellular elements?

A) Erythrocytes
B) Platelets
C) Leukocytes
D) All of the above

Question 33

Plasma that appears cloudy and white in a spun microhematocrit tube is referred to as:

A) icteric
B) hemolyzed
C) lipemic
D) polycythemic

Question 34

The instrument used to measure serum or plasma total protein of a sample is the:

A) impedance counter
B) quantitative buffy coat analyzer
C) handheld refractometer
D) focused laser analyzer

Question 35

Oil immersion lenses allow a magnification power of:

A) 5x.
B) 10x.
C) 40x.
D) 100x.

Question 36

Blood that appears dark reddish brown to black and tarry in a fecal sample is partially:

A) icteric
B) hemolyzed
C) lipemic
D) polycythemic

Question 37

Which anticoagulant, contained in blue-topped tubes, is not suitable for routine hematologic studies because of cell morphology distortion?

A) Heparin
B) Sodium citrate
C) EDTA
D) Ammonium oxalate

Question 38

Which of the following is an advantage of using a vacutainer system to obtain a blood samples?

A) Multiple sample vials can be obtained with the same stick.
B) Sample tube is premeasured for specific amount of anticoagulant
C) Sample tube contains negative pressure
D) Prevents blot clots from forming

Question 39

CBC analysis does not automatically include

A) total erythrocyte and leukocyte counts
B) hemoglobin concentration
C) differential WBC count
D) platelet estimate

Question 40

Hemolysis of a blood sample may occur when:

A) a large syringe is used to draw a small amount of blood.
B) a small-bore needle is used on a large syringe, and the plunger is pulled back quickly.
C) removing the needle before expelling blood into the collection tube.
D) B and C

Question 41

Dehydration and excess protein intake will result in increases in:

A) blood urea nitrogen
B) creatinine clearance
C) uric acid
D) bile acids

Question 42

Obtaining a sample with a dull scalpel blade and placing it on a microscope slide is known as:

A) scraping.
B) swabbing.
C) impression.
D) fine needle aspirate.

Question 43

Which of the following tests analyze the pancreatic function?

A) BUN, CREA, USG
B) ALT, ALP, bilirubin, total protein
C) Amylase, lipase
D) Glucose, fructosamine
E) C and D only

Question 44

The procedure of placing a clean microscope slide on a lesion located on a patient's body is known as:

A) scraping.
B) swabbing.
C) impression.
D) fine needle aspirate.

Question 45

EDTA, when used as an anticoagulant, is found in tubes with _____ rubber stoppers?

A) purple
B) blue
C) green
D) gray

Question 46

An elevation in BUN as a result of dehydration is referred to as:

A) anaplasma
B) azotemia
C) acariasis
D) azoturia

Question 47

Which sample type is best for electrolyte analysis (such as blood calcium)?

A) EDTA plasma
B) Serum or EDTA plasma
C) Serum or heparinized plasma
D) Serum or oxalated plasma

Question 48

Collecting fluid samples from body cavities is known as:

A) fine needle aspirate.
B) centesis.
C) lipemia.
D) None of the above

Question 49

Regarding antibody titers, which statement is most accurate?

A) Results are reported as either positive or negative.
B) The higher the titer, the more antibody in the sample.
C) A single, high-dilution titer (1:160 or above) is indicative of an active infection.
D) The higher the dilution, the harder the immunologist has to look to find an antibody in the sample.

Question 50

Which of the following tests analyze the kidney function?

A) nitrogen, creatinine
B) ALT, ALP, Bilirubin
C) Amylase, lipase
D) Glucose, fructosamine

Question 51

Bleeding from the nares would be documented as:

A) ecchymoses
B) petechia
C) epistaxis
D) purpura

Question 52

Collection of cells needed for vaginal cytology involves use of:

A) amniocnetesis.
B) needle biopsy.
C) impression smear.
D) sterile, moistened swabs.

Question 53

Which are the most commonly performed hepatobiliary tests in small animal practice?

A) BUN, CREA, USG
B) ALT, ALP, Bilirubin, Total Protein
C) Amylase, lipase
D) Glucose, fructosamine

Question 54

The ALP assay is most often used to diagnose:

A) cholestasis in dogs and cats
B) kidney failure
C) systemic lupus erythematosus
D) feline infectious peritonitis

Question 55

Samples to be used for histopathology must be sectioned so that the fixative can penetrate the entire tissue within:

A) 510 minutes
B) 6-10 hours
C) 12-24 hours
D) 24-48 hours

Question 56

A patient with purpura exhibits:

A) bruising
B) pinpoint hemorrhage
C) superficial hemorrhage
D) prolonged postsurgical bleeding

Question 57

Substances that are capable of generating a response from the immune system are referred to as:

A) antibodies
B) antigens
C) NK cells
D) TNF

Question 58

Samples collected with heparin anticoagulant are unsuitable for analysis when which of the following occurs?

A) the test cannot be run promptly
B) the time between collection and testing does not exceed 12 hours
C) a heparin salt contains the substance that is being measured
D) A and C are correct

Question 59

Inserting a needle into the bladder to obtain a sample of urine is known as:

A) bladdocentesis.
B) thoracocentesis.
C) abdominocentesis.
D) cystocentesis.

Question 60

Larval _____ species are usually found in swollen, cystlike subcutaneous sites, with a fistula communicating to the outside environment.

A) Onchocerca
B) Cuterebra
C) Thelazia
D) Sarcocystis

Question 61

An example of a type of soft tick is:

A) Rhipicephalus sanguineus.
B) Dermacetnor spp.
C) Otobius megnini.
D) Amblyomma spp.

Question 62

Which assay is most often used to detect cholestasis in dogs and cats?

A) trypsinogen
B) ALP
C) AST
D) bilirubin

Question 63

The test that provides an indication of the average glucose levels in a patient over the preceding 1 to 3 weeks is :

A) fructosamine
B) ( $\beta$ )-hydroxybutyrate
C) lactate
D) CK

Question 64

A normal, healthy dog or cat produces _________ of urine in a 24-hour period.

A) 5-10 ml/pound
B) 10-20 ml/pound
C) 20-30 ml/pound
D) 30-40 ml/pound

Question 65

Sarcoptic mange is caused by:

A) S. scabiei.
B) O. cynotis.
C) Demodex spp.
D) Cheyletiella.

Question 66

The Coombs test is used to detect:

A) auto-antibodies
B) electrolytes
C) immunodeficiencies
D) glucose

Question 67

The most common type of immunologic test performed in practice is:

A) agglutination
B) ELISA
C) immunodiffusion
D) tuberculin skin test

Question 68

Ascending tick paralysis is known to be caused by:

A) Argasidae.
B) Ixodidae.
C) Biting midges.
D) Malliphaga.

Question 69

Diseases such as bubonic plague and tularemia are carried by:

A) Mallopaga.
B) Anoplura.
C) Ctenicephalides.
D) Culicoides.

Question 70

Roundworms are of the phylum:

A) Platyhelminthes.
B) Acanthocephala.
C) Arthropoda.
D) Nematoda.

Question 71

How many intermediate hosts does Dipylidium canimum have?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) None

Question 72

Parasites that live within the host's body are known as:

A) endoparasites.
B) ectoparasites.
C) exoparasites.
D) gastrointestinal parasites.

Question 73

Common tests of hepatobiliary function used in small animal practice include:

A) ALT
B) glucose
C) CK
D) lactate

Question 74

Urine should be evaluated for which of the following characteristics on gross examination?

A) Color and clarity
B) Odor and volume
C) Glucose, ketones, and blood
D) All of the above
E) A and B only

Question 75

The unique physiology of Dalmatian dogs results in the excretion of:

A) GGT
B) lactate
C) AST
D) uric acid

Question 76

The cell that differentiates to a macrophage when in tissue spaces is the:

A) T-lymphocyte.
B) neutrophil.
C) monocyte.
D) basophil.

Question 77

Bile acids are produced from ____ in the liver.

A) bilirubin
B) cholesterol
C) lipase
D) chymotrypsinogen

Question 78

A test that provides an indication of kidney function in animals is:

A) total protein.
B) specific gravity.
C) sedimentation.
D) dipstick analysis.

Question 79

A test commonly used as a prognostic indicator in critically ill patients is:

A) ALT
B) glucose
C) CK
D) lactate

Question 80

Which is a type of RBC formed element that may be seen in urine sediment?

A) Caudate
B) Crenated
C) Squamous
D) Transitional