Deck 8: Animal Care and Nursing

Question 1

Dyspnea is typically characterized by:

A) prolonged inspiration with quicker expiration
B) hard panting with tongue protrusion
C) a low-pitched snoring sound
D) a high-pitched wheeze

Answer 1

prolonged inspiration with quicker expiration

Question 2

Hypothermia is common in:

A) sepsis
B) multiple organ failure
C) hypovolemia
D) cardiac disease

Answer 2

sepsis

Question 3

Securing the catheter to reduce movement reduces the risk of:

A) infection
B) phlebitis
C) sarcoma
D) decubitus ulcers

Answer 3

phlebitis

Question 4

Irritating or hypertonic medications are best given:

A) SC
B) IM
C) IV
D) IP

Question 5

A slower than normal heart rate is termed:

A) arrhythmia
B) sinus rhythm
C) tachycardia
D) bradycardia

Question 6

Intradermal (ID) injections are used for:

A) skin testing
B) absorption of fluids
C) quick absorption
D) slow absorption

Question 7

To determine hemodynamic stability, what needs to be considered?

A) Mucous membrane color
B) Pulse quality
C) Respiration rate
D) Blood pressure
E) A and B together

Question 8

Hyperthermia typically occurs in:

A) infection
B) severe trauma
C) pediatric patients
D) geriatric patients

Question 9

Obtaining a daily body weight is important when monitoring which of the following conditions?

A) Hypertension
B) Trauma
C) Fluid therapy
D) Head injury

Question 10

Which type of urinary catheter is most appropriate for placement in a blocked cat?

A) Metal
B) Frozen red rubber
C) Tomcat catheter
D) Polypropylene

Question 11

Local venous inflammation is termed:

A) edema
B) phlebitis
C) extravasation
D) sepsis

Question 12

The method of medication administration that promotes the quickest absorption is:

A) SQ.
B) IM.
C) IV.
D) ID.

Question 13

What is the preferred site for IM injection in small patients?

A) Pectoral muscles
B) Rectus abdominis muscle
C) Epaxial muscles
D) Hypaxial muscles

Question 14

Central catheter placement should be in the ___________________, which is less likely to cause mechanical irritation.

A) saphenous vein
B) cephalic vein
C) jugular vein
D) Any of the above

Question 15

Which type of enema is least appropriate for use in cats?

A) Soapy water
B) Glycerin and water
C) Mineral oil
D) Phosphate

Question 16

Which of the following is considered an important vital sign?

A) Rate of respiration
B) Urinary output
C) Body weight
D) Skin turgor

Question 17

What is the most important criterion of patient selection for orogastric intubation?

A) Depressed or absent appetite
B) Absence of upper respiratory tract abnormalities
C) Presence of a swallowing reflex
D) Unconsciousness or continued need for heavy sedation

Question 18

Large, watery stools are typical of:

A) small bowel diarrhea
B) large bowel diarrhea
C) dehydration
D) pancreatitis

Question 19

Short peripheral catheters are usually replaced:

A) every 24 to 36 hours
B) every 48 hours
C) every 72 hours
D) only as necessary

Question 20

Presence of a cough in cats may indicate:

A) cardiac disease
B) renal failure
C) bronchial disease
D) toxicity

Question 21

A normal respiratory rate range for dogs is __________ bpm.

A) 4-8
B) 8-20
C) 30-60
D) 70-160

Question 22

Prolonged capillary refill time is:

A) less than 1 second
B) 1 to 2 seconds
C) more than 2 seconds
D) not measured in seconds.

Question 23

Which of the following is a primary technique used during physical examination?

A) percussion
B) observation
C) auscultation
D) A, B, and C

Question 24

Signs of an anal gland impaction include:

A) scooting
B) vomiting
C) diarrhea
D) dehydration

Question 25

In which situation are phosphate enemas contraindicated?

A) Cats
B) Large dogs
C) Small dogs
D) A and C are correct

Question 26

Which statement is most accurate about vital signs?

A) they are not important to a patient's overall status.
B) changes can warn the veterinary team of impending complications
C) the ones that change do not indicate potential complications.
D) they are monitored whenever you have a spare minute.

Question 27

The normal heart rate of a cat is _______ bpm.

A) 70-160
B) 150-210
C) 250-500
D) 230-280

Question 28

The assessment of mucous membrane color, CRT, pulse strength and quality are evaluators of:

A) perfusion.
B) abdominal function.
C) tenderness in underlying organs.
D) tympany.

Question 29

Auscultation is used to assess the __________ system.

A) nervous
B) integumentary
C) cardiovascular
D) reproductive

Question 30

The physical examination evaluates the animal's current state of:

A) illness
B) health
C) mind
D) body mass

Question 31

For severe hyperthermia, one may apply _______ to the foot pads to help cool the patient.

A) peroxide
B) chlorhexidine
C) isopropyl alcohol
D) ethyl alcohol

Question 32

When auscultating the lungs, the patient should be in which of the following positions?

A) Right lateral recumbency
B) Left lateral recumbency
C) Sternal recumbency
D) The patient can be in any position for best results.

Question 33

Crackles in the lungs may indicate:

A) trauma.
B) fluid overload.
C) stenosis.
D) pneumothorax.

Question 34

Temperatures should be taken on patients:

A) only when the patient presents with a condition.
B) each time the patient presents to the hospital.
C) multiple times throughout the visit.
D) None of the above

Question 35

If the quick is accidentally cut during a nail trim:

A) apply ice packs immediately to stop the bleeding
B) administer pain medication
C) apply a cauterizing agent
D) notify the veterinarian immediately

Question 36

Clinical signs of an ear infection include:

A) head tilt
B) anisocoria
C) nystagmus
D) vomiting
E) A and C

Question 37

When evaluating the ears of a patient, one would note which of the following?

A) Abnormal sounds
B) Abnormal gait
C) Pupillary light reflex
D) Tenderness

Question 38

A skin turgor test can indicate:

A) hydration status.
B) alopecia.
C) pyoderma.
D) dyspnea.

Question 39

During physical examination of a dog you note that he is excitable and startled by noises in the examination room. You have observed his:

A) body condition
B) mentation
C) state of nutrition
D) temperament

Question 40

Vital signs:

A) reflect overall patient status
B) reflect what is always "normal" for that animal
C) should not be valued highly in a physical examination
D) should be taken only if the animal looks sick

Question 41

A fluctuation in heart rate with respiration is called:

A) sinus rhythm
B) sinus arrhythmia
C) supraventricular rhythm
D) respiratory dysrhythmia

Question 42

Which lavage solution is reserved for a one-time, initial irrigation of dirty wounds?

A) Lactated Ringer solution
B) 10% povidone-iodine scrub
C) 0.05% chlorhexidine
D) 3% hydrogen peroxide

Question 43

A wound is infected when the number of microorganisms reaches:

A) 1 per gram of tissue
B) 1000 per gram of tissue
C) 100,000 per gram of tissue
D) 1,000,000 per gram of tissue

Question 44

A bandage provides all of the following functions, except:

A) protects wounds.
B) serves as a vehicle for therapeutic agents.
C) stabilizes soft tissue.
D) allows the pet to be weight bearing.

Question 45

Concerning lidocaine with epinephrine for initial wound management, which statement is most accurate?

A) It should not be used because the epinephrine can cause tissue necrosis at the wound edges.
B) It should not be used because it is much more expensive, and no more effective, than plain lidocaine.
C) It should be used in preference to plain lidocaine because the epinephrine restricts hemorrhage.
D) It should be used in preference to plain lidocaine because the epinephrine prolongs the anesthetic effect.

Question 46

Wounds that are not sutured, but instead allowed to heal by contraction and epithelialization ar healing by:

A) first intention
B) second intention
C) third intention
D) primary closure

Question 47

A capillary refill time of more than 2 seconds:

A) indicates reduced blood perfusion
B) indicates fever
C) indicates pain
D) is normal in some dog breeds

Question 48

The best method of lavage is use of:

A) gravity flow
B) bulb syringe
C) 35- to 60-mL syringe and needle
D) turkey baster

Question 49

What is the first step in wound management?

A) Evaluate for bacterial contamination
B) Control of hemorrhage
C) Evaluate the wound location
D) Look for tissue in the wound

Question 50

Which of the following is a chronic wound?

A) Gunshot wound
B) Surgical incision
C) Decubital ulcer
D) Bite wound

Question 51

Which wound lavage solution has broad and sustained antimicrobial activity, with minimal tissue irritation?

A) Lactated Ringer solution
B) 10% povidone-iodine scrub
C) 0.05% chlorhexidine
D) 3% hydrogen peroxide

Question 52

The most common area that is subject to decubital ulcers is the:

A) sternum.
B) sides of the first digits.
C) hocks.
D) metacarpals.

Question 53

Flushing of the stomach is known as:

A) oral lavage.
B) gastric lavage.
C) regurgitation.
D) vomitus.

Question 54

During initial wound treatment, the wound should first be protected while preparing the areas around it by:

A) instilling ophthalmic ointment
B) applying sterile ointment
C) careful clipping around the wound
D) applying mineral oil

Question 55

Wound lavage solutions are most effective when delivered with a pressure of at least:

A) 7 psi
B) 35 psi
C) 60 psi
D) 70 psi

Question 56

Patients should be turned ____________ to prevent the formation of ulcers.

A) every 1-2 hours
B) every 2-4 hours
C) every 6-12 hours
D) once daily

Question 57

Which arrhythmia may be normal in dogs?

A) Gallop rhythm
B) Arterial fibrillation
C) Respiratory sinus arrhythmia
D) Premature ventricular contractions

Question 58

Patients on IV fluids may have:

A) decreased urine production.
B) normal urine production.
C) increased urine production.
D) None of the above

Question 59

Preoperative antibacterials are generally used when:

A) the surgery is less than 90 minutes and is an elective procedure
B) an experienced surgeon is using an aseptic technique
C) patients of good health have a short surgery time
D) a patient has sustained severe systemic trauma

Question 60

Diagnostic possibilities of an animal's illness are termed:

A) definitive possibilities
B) differential diagnoses
C) circumstantial presumptions
D) tentative conclusions

Question 61

The secondary layer of a bandage:

A) protects the wound
B) provides absorbency and padding
C) holds the other layers in place
D) is not important and is not always used

Question 62

The _________ is used with skin grafts to keep the wound dry, prevent bacterial movement, afford continuous drainage, and eliminate the need for irrigation.

A) the Penrose drain
B) a closed-suction drain
C) a gauze seton
D) periodic needle aspiration

Question 63

Débridement is considered complete when:

A) the wound is free of bacteria
B) the tissue takes on a water-logged appearance
C) the wound bed consists of only healthy tissue
D) the wound has been prepped for surgery

Question 64

For a wound with copious or viscous exudate:

A) a nonadherent first layer should be used
B) a wet-to-wet dressing should be used
C) a wet-to-dry dressing should be used
D) a dry-to-dry dressing should be used

Question 65

Which of the following statements is most accurate about decubital ulcers?

A) They occur most often in young healthy animals.
B) They are easy to treat and heal if they occur.
C) They occur when the animal is not able to get up but has good padding.
D) They can be prevented with good hygiene, padding, and frequent changing positions of the recumbent patient.

Question 66

Which device or procedure provides a simple conduit for gravity flow?

A) the Penrose drain
B) a closed-suction drain
C) a gauze seton
D) periodic needle aspiration

Question 67

Decubital ulcers can occur with which of the following?

A) Improper bandaging
B) Snakebites
C) Thermal burns
D) Chemical burns

Question 68

The primary layer of a bandage:

A) rests on the wound
B) provides absorbency and padding
C) holds the other layers in place
D) is what the owner sees

Question 69

Second-intention healing means :

A) the wound is cleaned and surgically closed later
B) the wound is cleaned and surgically closed right away
C) the wound is cleaned and allowed to close on its own
D) the wound is cleaned and surgically closed once it heals a small amount

Question 70

In the primary layer of a bandage, an adherent bandage is used:

A) once granulation tissue has formed
B) if there is little to no discharge from the wound
C) when débridement is still necessary
D) to cover a surgical site

Question 71

A wound that is closed prematurely can result in:

A) dehiscence and infection
B) dehiscence and itching
C) infection and itching
D) nothing, it should be fine

Question 72

Which type of dressing is best for open wounds with loose necrotic tissue or foreign material on the wound surface?

A) Nonadherent
B) Robert Jones
C) Dry-to-dry
D) Wet-to-wet

Question 73

A nonadherent dressing is used:

A) to avoid disruption of new tissue formation
B) to débride a wound
C) as a secondary layer in a bandage
D) as a tertiary layer in a bandage

Question 74

The tertiary layer of a bandage:

A) protects the wound
B) provides absorbency
C) provides padding
D) holds the other layers in place

Question 75

A Penrose drain should not be left in place for more than:

A) 1 to 3 days
B) 3 to 5 days
C) 7 to 10 days
D) 10 to 14 days

Question 76

The secondary layer of a bandage:

A) is in contact with the wound itself
B) is used to hold the other layers in place
C) is placed using Elastikon
D) provides support and moves exudates away from the wound