Deck 9: Anesthesia and Surgical Assisting

Question 1

Which wrapper has the longest sterile shelf life for a sterilized pack?

A) Heat-sealed plastic pouch
B) Double-wrapping with two-layer muslin
C) Double-wrapping with paper
D) Double-wrapping with two-layer muslin, heat-sealed in a dust cover

Answer 1

Heat-sealed plastic pouch

Question 2

Surgical instruments with multiple components:

A) must be sterilized as one open piece in an autoclave
B) should be disassembled before cleaning
C) should be lubricated before cleaning
D) must be cleaned only with tap water

Answer 2

should be disassembled before cleaning

Question 3

You are fitting an ETT tube size for a dog. Assuming a 9- to 9.5-mm tube is standard for a 40-lb dog, as weight changes by 5 lb, you should change the size of the ETT by:

A) 0.2 mm
B) 0.4 mm
C) 0.5 mm
D) 1.0 mm

Answer 3

0.5 mm

Question 4

Hemostasis in a vessel smaller than 2 mm in diameter is best effected by:

A) digital pressure
B) ligation
C) electrocoagulation
D) electrocautery

Question 5

Which instrument is used for thick-tissue hemostasis during an ovariohysterectomy?

A) Kelly forceps
B) Rochester-Carmalt forceps
C) Gelpi
D) Brown-Adson forceps

Question 6

Which term is often used interchangeably with "laparotomy"?

A) Celiotomy
B) Ovariohysterectomy
C) Cystotomy
D) Enterotomy

Question 7

Which statement about draping is most accurate?

A) Each field drape should be unfolded, shaken out, and then placed at the periphery of the shaved area in a single gliding motion.
B) Field drapes extend the sterile field over the animal and down the sides of the operating table.
C) The field drape should be placed well back from the prepared site and slowly slid into position approximately 2 cm inside the clipped area.
D) A continuous sterile field is provided by a large drape that is placed over the field drapes, leaving only the surgical site exposed.

Question 8

Which scissors are best for cutting through heavy tissues, such as fascia?

A) Metzenbaum
B) Mayo
C) Tenotomy
D) Mayo-Hegar

Question 9

A 2° F increase in rectal temperature the day after surgery is:

A) an indication of wound infection
B) an indication of impending sepsis
C) a normal physiologic response to the trauma of major surgery
D) an indication of an anesthetic reaction

Question 10

Which statement most accurately explains the value of sterilization indicators?

A) They are paper strips that indicate whether a surgical pack is sterile.
B) They do not indicate sterility, only that certain conditions for sterility have been met.
C) Failure to change color with sterilization indicates a mechanical failure of the sterilizing system.
D) They change color only when the item has been sterilized for the required period of time.

Question 11

In which situation would you be most included to use a blunt-point needle rather than a tapercut or cutting needle?

A) Suturing skin
B) Suturing the eye
C) Suturing the liver
D) Suturing a tendon

Question 12

Which agent is recommended for sterilization of instruments with lenses?

A) Steam
B) Sodium hypochlorite
C) Ethylene oxide
D) Glutaraldehyde

Question 13

Surgical sponges should be counted:

A) before being placed into the surgical pack for sterilization
B) at the start of the surgical procedure and again before closure
C) when preparing the surgical pack and again before closing the surgical incision
D) when cleaning up after surgery

Question 14

Which abdominal incision is made parallel to the long axis of the body and lateral to the ventral midline?

A) Paracostal
B) Flank
C) Paramedian
D) Ventral midline

Question 15

The main difference between hemostatic forceps and tissue forceps is that:

A) hemostats are for crushing whereas tissue forceps are for grasping without causing damage
B) hemostats do not have serrated jaws
C) hemostats can be used as tissue forceps, but tissue forceps cannot be used as hemostats
D) tissue forceps are easier to use one-handed

Question 16

You are scrubbing a patient in preparation for surgery using chlorhexidine to prep the skin. Sufficient contact time would be:

A) a 30-second application.
B) a 1 minute application.
C) two 30-second applications.
D) three applications for 5 minutes of contact time.

Question 17

Surgical drapes should be folded:

A) like a fan (fan-folded) into the smallest practical size
B) in half, and halved again at least three times
C) so that the fenestration can be positioned over the surgical site without contaminating the drape
D) only two to three times so that steam/gas can penetrate adequately

Question 18

The recommended maximum storage time for a sterilized surgical pack double-wrapped in paper is:

A) 4 weeks
B) 2 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year

Question 19

Concerning sterile preparation of the operative site, which statement is most accurate?

A) Hair on the surgical site can be adequately clipped with a No. 10 blade.
B) Scrubbing should start at the periphery of the clipped area and move toward the center.
C) Isopropyl alcohol provides excellent skin disinfection and can be used alone if at least 5 minutes of contact time is allowed.
D) Two 30-second applications of chlorhexidine scrub will be adequate for antimicrobial activity.

Question 20

An accumulation of serum in dead space in the region of an incision is called a:

A) hematoma
B) keratoma
C) seroma
D) subcutoma

Question 21

The endotracheal tube protocol to follow when turning a patient is to:

A) move the hoses out of the way.
B) temporarily disconnect the tube.
C) hyperextend the neck.
D) place sterile lubricant at the insertion site.

Question 22

Which of the following is the agent for autoclave sterilization?

A) Steam under pressure
B) Dry heat
C) Chemical disinfectant solution
D) Ethylene oxide

Question 23

To prevent pressure on the diaphragm during anesthesia, the caudal aspect of the body is not elevated beyond _____ degrees.

A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60

Question 24

Nonabsorbable skin sutures are removed once healing is sufficient to prevent wound dehiscence, usually:

A) 20 to 25 days
B) 10 to 14 days
C) 3 to 5 days
D) at least 30 days

Question 25

The ideal suture material is:

A) noncarcinogenic and can shrink
B) allergenic and noncapillary
C) a bacterial growth inhibitor and is nonferromagnetic
D) any material that resists knotting and shrinkage

Question 26

Clothing worn in an operating room:

A) can be street clothes
B) should be scrubs dedicated to surgical use
C) should be clothes worn only in the clinic
D) is only required to be clean and intact

Question 27

A flank incision:

A) is oriented parallel to the last rib
B) is located on the ventral midline of the patient
C) is oriented perpendicular to the long axis of the body, caudal to the last rib
D) is located lateral and parallel to the ventral midline

Question 28

Which suture material is nonabsorbable?

A) Polyester
B) Polyglycolic acid
C) Polyglactin 910
D) Polyglyconate

Question 29

Patient preparation for cystotomy involves shaving what area of the body?

A) Ventral neck
B) Paw
C) Ventral abdomen
D) Rear leg

Question 30

When folding surgical gowns for sterilization:

A) have the sleeves on top for easy grasping
B) fold all outer areas of the gown to the inside
C) attention to the folding is not necessary, only the wrapping
D) a hand towel should be placed inside the gown

Question 31

Cleaning surgical instruments before sterilization:

A) is not necessary if proper sterilization practices are followed
B) must be done only to obviously dirty instruments
C) is done only when time permits
D) must be performed carefully as many methods of sterilization will not work in the presence of moisture or organic debris

Question 32

Which suture material is absorbed most rapidly from an infected wound through increased local phagocytic activity?

A) Surgical gut
B) Silk
C) Nylon
D) PDS (polydioxanone)

Question 33

Absorbable suture materials lose most of their tensile strength within _____ days of placement in tissue.

A) 90
B) 60
C) 30
D) 15

Question 34

An instrument used to scrape surfaces of dense tissues is a:

A) curette
B) osteotome
C) trephine
D) rongeur

Question 35

Objects that cannot withstand temperature extremes or pressure should be sterilized with:

A) cold sterilization
B) gas sterilization
C) autoclaving
D) chlorhexidine

Question 36

Which antimicrobial agent alters cell wall permeability and binds with the keratin of skin?

A) Hexachlorophene
B) Triclosan
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Povidone-iodine

Question 37

What is the appropriate soak time to disinfect an instrument in cold sterilization?

A) 30 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 45 minutes
D) 10 minutes

Question 38

If wound dehiscence occurs following surgery:

A) evisceration must have already occurred
B) tissue weakness may have disrupted the surgical site
C) the patient must have been overfed
D) corticosteroids would be indicated

Question 39

When referring to a surgical procedure, the suffix -rrhaphy means :

A) surgical alteration of shape or form
B) surgical creation of an artificial opening
C) surgical repair by suturing
D) surgical fixation

Question 40

Which incision is oriented parallel to the last rib to expose the stomach and spleen in a monogastric patient?

A) Ventral midline
B) Paramedian
C) Paracostal
D) Flank

Question 41

A virucidal disinfectant:

A) inhibits viruses
B) kills viruses
C) inhibits bacteria
D) kills bacteria

Question 42

For steam and gas sterilization, instruments should be organized:

A) in order opposite of usage
B) on a lint-free towel placed on the bottom of a perforated metal instrument tray
C) with all box locks locked
D) with a 1- to 2-mm space between them

Question 43

Hemostasis means :

A) uncontrolled bleeding
B) minimal bleeding
C) arrest of bleeding
D) blotting blood away from surgical site

Question 44

An incision into the intestine is called:

A) gastrotomy
B) intestinal resection and anastomosis
C) enterotomy
D) laparotomy

Question 45

Which serrations on hemostatic forceps are gentler on tissue?

A) Cross serrations
B) Combination serrations
C) Longitudinal serrations
D) Transverse serrations

Question 46

Metzenbaum scissors should be reserved for:

A) fine, thin tissue
B) heavy tissue such as fascia
C) suture material
D) paper drape

Question 47

Before gas sterilization, items should be:

A) clean and dry
B) aerated for 12 hours
C) autoclaved
D) rinsed thoroughly with sterile water

Question 48

The following are examples of needle shapes, except:

A) tapercut.
B) spatula point.
C) regular cutting.
D) swagged.

Question 49

Which of the following instruments is appropriate for holding tissues during surgery?

A) Angiotribes
B) Standard surgical scissors
C) Brown-Adson forceps
D) Sponge forceps

Question 50

With the needle and suture joined as a continuous unit in swaged needles:

A) ease of use is increased and tissue trauma is minimized
B) the needle should be manipulated directly with the fingers
C) the needle will create a larger hole in the tissue
D) the eye may be closed or French

Question 51

The term virulence means :

A) resistance of a bacteria to an antibiotic
B) enough microorganisms to overcome a patient's defenses
C) resistance of a patient to infection
D) a microorganism's ability to cause disease

Question 52

Before putting soiled instruments into an ultrasonic cleaner:

A) box locks should be closed
B) they should be allowed to air dry
C) they should be washed in cleaning solution to remove debris
D) they shold be disassembled, then reassembled before cleaning

Question 53

Standard practice is to withhold food from healthy dogs scheduled for surgery for ___ hours prior to anesthetic induction.

A) 2-4
B) 4-6
C) 8-12
D) Withholding food from dogs is not recommended

Question 54

The surgical procedure in which calculi are removed from the urinary bladder is called:

A) cystostomy
B) urethrostomy
C) cystotomy
D) calculectomy

Question 55

Gravity displacement autoclaves:

A) are not used in veterinary medicine
B) involve water that is heated in a chamber
C) have a boiler to generate steam
D) force air out of the chamber by means of a vacuum pump

Question 56

Which physical method of sterilization is commonly used in veterinary hospitals?

A) Radiation
B) Moist heat
C) Dry heat
D) Filtration

Question 57

Multifilament suture:

A) creates less tissue drag than monofilament suture
B) is more pliable and flexible than monofilament suture
C) does not have interstitial spaces that may harbor bacteria
D) is made of a single strand of material

Question 58

Which instrument is typically used to retract the abdominal wall?

A) Finochietto retractor
B) Balfour retractor
C) Senn retractor
D) Weitlaner

Question 59

The definition of sterile is:

A) without pathogenic microbes.
B) without bacteria.
C) without viruses or spores.
D) bacteriostatic.
E) B and C

Question 60

Which is most true of electrocautery?

A) It can be used interchangeably with electrocoagulation.
B) It involves heating a needle tip or scalpel before applying it to the tissue.
C) It is used to achieve hemostasis in vessels smaller than 2 mm in diameter.
D) It involves heat generated in tissue as a high-frequency current passes through it.

Question 61

Complications associated with the removal of the endotracheal tube prematurely include:

A) regurgitation.
B) difficulty breathing.
C) decreased monitoring capabilities.
D) A and B

Question 62

When monitoring a patient under anesthesia, vitals should be retained and recorded:

A) at the beginning of the procedure.
B) every 5-10 minutes.
C) every 30 minutes.
D) at the end of the procedure.

Question 63

Nutritional needs of a post-surgical patient are often neglected. Which nutrient helps increase the healing process?

A) Fat
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrates
D) Vitamins A, C, and B-complex

Question 64

The primary function of a vaporizer is to:

A) deliver oxygen to the patient.
B) regulate the flow of oxygen to the patient.
C) vaporize anesthesia in a controlled manner.
D) deliver anesthesia to the patient.

Question 65

The main function of an apnea monitor is to alert when the:

A) heart stops beating.
B) patient has not taken a breath.
C) blood pressure has dropped.
D) All of the above

Question 66

The most appropriate fluid administration set for large animals is one that delivers:

A) 10 drops/mL
B) 12 drops/mL
C) 15 drops/mL
D) 60 drops/mL

Question 67

Anesthesia equipment should be inspected on a:

A) yearly basis.
B) monthly basis.
C) weekly basis.
D) daily basis.

Question 68

Which of the following characteristics are often accompanied by pain?

A) Redness and/or swelling
B) Heat
C) Drainage
D) A and B

Question 69

Which instrument is commonly used during thoracotomies?

A) Finochietto retractor
B) Balfour retractor
C) Senn retractor
D) Weitlaner

Question 70

Surgical wounds should be examined ___________ during the immediate postoperative period.

A) three times daily
B) twice daily
C) daily
D) weekly

Question 71

The anesthetic machine component that measures and delivers a constant gas flow is the:

A) oxygen pressure valve
B) vaporizer
C) flow meter
D) pressure regulator

Question 72

The main advantage of the universal-F circuit breathing system is that:

A) it reduces ventilatory dead space and respiratory effort
B) gas delivery is more efficient
C) it minimizes patient heat loss by prewarming inhaled gases
D) the unit takes up less space than other delivery systems

Question 73

Steady state anesthesia and consistent depth of anesthesia are easy to maintain with:

A) injectable agents.
B) inhaled agents.
C) agents administered the mucosal membrane.
D) agents administered rectally.

Question 74

The most crucial step in anesthesia is:

A) appropriate premedication
B) patient evaluation
C) selection of the anesthetic drug and dose
D) monitoring ventilation and perfusion

Question 75

A post-surgical patient shows signs of dehiscence. What would you expect to see?

A) Body swelling from blood or serum filling a body cavity
B) Yellow to green pus around the surgical site
C) Wound opening
D) Hemorrhaging

Question 76

Techniques that could decrease the exposure to waste anesthetic gases include:

A) avoid using mask induction techniques.
B) check for and correct leaks in anesthesia machine and breathing circuit.
C) connect breathing system to a scavenger system.
D) Only A and C
E) All of the above

Question 77

A post-surgery patient's temperature has reached 99 degrees; how frequently should the temperature be taken?

A) Every half hour
B) Every hour
C) 4-6 hours
D) 6-12 hours

Question 78

Which is true of hypothermia?

A) It must be eliminated before anesthesia can continue
B) It reduces anesthetic requirements
C) It increases anesthetic requirements
D) It has no effect on anesthesia needs

Question 79

A capnometer analyzes which of the following parameters?

A) Blood pressure
B) End tidal CO₂
C) PaCO₂
D) Heart rate

Question 80

Exhausted CO₂ granules can be determined by which characteristic?

A) Granules chip or crumble with finger pressure
B) Granules are hard
C) Granules maintain a white consistency
D) All of the above characteristics are those of expired granules.