Deck 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease

Question 1

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the

A) prodromal stage.
B) convalescent stage.
C) incubation period.
D) period of invasion.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the

A) prodromal stage.
B) convalescent stage.
C) incubation period.
D) period of invasion.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Exotoxins are

A) proteins.
B) only released after a cell is damaged or lysed.
C) antiphagocytic factors.
D) secretions that always target nervous tissue.
E) lipopolysaccharides.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora

A) before birth, in utero.
B) during, and immediately after birth.
C) when a child first goes to school.
D) when an infant gets its first infectious disease.
E) during puberty.

Question 5

Resident flora of the intestines include

A) Streptococcus.
B) Bacteroides.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) Haemophilus.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 6

Which is not the terminology used for resident flora?

A) Pathogenic flora
B) Normal flora
C) Indigenous flora
D) Normal microflora
E) all of these choices are correct.

Question 7

STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common

A) genera of resident flora.
B) sexually-transmitted diseases.
C) portals of entry.
D) vectors.
E) infections of the fetus and neonate.

Question 8

The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is

A) prodromal stage.
B) convalescent stage.
C) incubation period.
D) period of invasion.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 9

Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?

A) Lactobacillus
B) Streptococcus
C) Haemophilus
D) Escherichia
E) Mycobacterium

Question 10

Virulence factors include all the following, except

A) capsules.
B) ribosomes.
C) exoenzymes.
D) endotoxin.
E) exotoxin.

Question 11

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of

A) adhesive factors.
B) exotoxins.
C) hemolysins.
D) antiphagocytic factors.
E) exoenzymes.

Question 12

Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?

A) Lactobacillus
B) Streptococcus
C) Haemophilus
D) Escherichia
E) Mycobacterium

Question 13

Enterotoxins are

A) virulence factors.
B) toxins that target the intestines.
C) proteins.
D) exotoxins.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 14

Resident microbiota are found in/on the

A) skin.
B) mouth.
C) nasal passages.
D) large intestine.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 15

All infectious diseases

A) are contagious.
B) only occur in humans.
C) are caused by microorganisms or their products.
D) are caused by vectors.
E) involve viruses as the pathogen.

Question 16

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

A) in food.
B) the patient's own normal flora.
C) on fomites.
D) in the air.
E) transmitted from one person to another.

Question 17

Infection occurs when

A) contaminants are present on the skin.
B) a person swallows microbes in/on food.
C) a person inhales microbes in the air.
D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 18

All of the following genera are considered resident microbiota of skin sites, except

A) Escherichia.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Corynebacterium.
D) Micrococcus.
E) Mycobacterium.

Question 19

The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the

A) skin.
B) mouth.
C) large intestine.
D) vagina.
E) nasal passages.

Question 20

Which is mismatched?

A) fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B) capsules - antiphagocytic factor
C) coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
D) leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E) hemolysins - damage red blood cells

Question 21

When would Koch's Postulates be utilized?

A) to determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab
B) to develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
C) to determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
D) to formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
E) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem

Question 22

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed

A) syndrome.
B) symptom.
C) sign.
D) pathology.
E) inflammation.

Question 23

A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is

A) direct.
B) fomite.
C) vehicle.
D) droplet nuclei.
E) aerosol.

Question 24

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is

A) epidemic.
B) endemic.
C) pandemic.
D) sporadic.
E) chronic.

Question 25

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed

A) syndrome.
B) symptom.
C) sign.
D) pathology.
E) inflammation.

Question 26

Reservoirs include

A) humans.
B) animals.
C) soil.
D) water.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 27

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of

A) toxemia.
B) inflammation.
C) sequelae.
D) a syndrome.
E) latency.

Question 28

Health-care-associated infections involve all the following, except

A) they are only transmitted by medical personnel.
B) they often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.
C) the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent.
D) Escherichia coli and Staphylococci are common infectious agents.
E) medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.

Question 29

All of the following are correct about mechanical vectors, except

A) cockroaches are an example.
B) the vector can carry the pathogen on its feet and mouthparts.
C) the vector is important to the life cycle of the infectious agent.
D) they can spread viral, bacterial, protozoan, and worm infections.
E) some, like flies feed on garbage and feces.

Question 30

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the

A) mortality rate.
B) morbidity rate.
C) incidence rate.
D) prevalence rate.
E) epidemic rate.

Question 31

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a

A) fomite.
B) carrier.
C) vector.
D) reservoir.
E) source.

Question 32

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a

A) fomite.
B) carrier.
C) vector.
D) reservoir.
E) source.

Question 33

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the

A) fomite.
B) carrier.
C) vector.
D) reservoir.
E) source.

Question 34

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?

A) drinking contaminated water
B) a sneeze transmitting a cold
C) oral-fecal transmission involving a diaper
D) a mosquito bite
E) a mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus

Question 35

The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are

A) fomites.
B) aerosols.
C) mechanical vectors.
D) droplet nuclei.
E) biological vectors.

Question 36

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is

A) pathology.
B) clinical microbiology.
C) medicine.
D) immunology.
E) epidemiology.

Question 37

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are

A) fomites.
B) aerosols.
C) mechanical vectors.
D) droplet nuclei.
E) biological vectors.

Question 38

The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the

A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
B) World Health Organization.
C) National Institutes of Health.
D) United States Department of Agriculture.
E) Infection Control Committee.

Question 39

Which is mismatched?

A) secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
B) mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
C) acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
D) local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
E) toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

Question 40

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a

A) fomite.
B) carrier.
C) vector.
D) reservoir.
E) source.

Question 41

Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.

Question 42

Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which health-care-associated infection is she at greatest risk for contracting?

A) respiratory
B) septicemia
C) urinary tract
D) surgical site
E) meningitis

Question 43

Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

Question 44

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to Biosafety Level 4.

Question 45

Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted

A) from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta.
B) from parent to offspring via respiratory route.
C) by contact between siblings.
D) between people living or working in the same building.
E) between higher and lower animals.

Question 46

Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens?

A) urogenital
B) gastrointestinal
C) respiratory
D) skin
E) They are all equally used as portals.

Question 47

Most of the skin's resident flora is found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis.

Question 48

If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) They are equally virulent.
D) It is impossible to determine.

Question 49

Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens.

Question 50

When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as

A) sporadic.
B) pandemic.
C) endemic.
D) epidemic.
E) chronic.

Question 51

A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease?

A) accountant
B) teacher
C) nurse
D) dental hygienist
E) forest ranger

Question 52

When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.

Question 53

A student has their teeth cleaned. The hygienist nicks their gum tissue. The student develops endocarditis due to Streptococcus. What kind of pattern of infection is this?

A) localized
B) mixed infection
C) focal
D) systemic
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 54

Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease.

Question 55

Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.

Question 56

The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.

Question 57

Joe contracted Hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is ___________ and the reservoir is ______________.

A) Joe; the doughnut
B) the doughnut; humans
C) humans; flour
D) flour; Joe
E) humans; Joe

Question 58

All of the following are signs of infectious diseases, except

A) fever.
B) leucopenia.
C) swollen lymph nodes.
D) antibodies in serum.
E) nausea.

Question 59

A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues.

Question 60

A veterinary hospital had an outbreak of Salmonella infantis. Within the facility, how can Salmonella be spread?

A) unwashed hands
B) feces
C) contaminated objects
D) multiple animals using the same stalls without proper cleaning
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 61

_____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease.

Question 62

Discuss 5 specific contributing factors in the occurrence of health-care-associated infections, and then discuss 3 actions that can help decrease their rate at health care facilities.

Question 63

Rabid animals typically salivate excessively in the late stages of the disease. This excess salivation

A) helps reduce and control the fever.
B) is the result of hydrophobia.
C) provides a portal of exit for the virus.
D) indicates that the salivary glands are the portal of entry.

Question 64

Of the sites listed below, which is most likely to be free of any normal microbiota?

A) large intestine
B) uterus
C) nasopharynx
D) vagina

Question 65

A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.

Question 66

Compare and contrast exotoxins and endotoxins with regard to their: a) chemical nature, b) source, c) effects on human body cells and resulting symptoms, and d) examples.

Question 67

Experiments have been done to determine the infective dose of a specific pathogen in animals with normal microbiota and gnotobiotic animals. Predict how the infective dose for gnotobiotic animals is expected to compare to the infective dose of animals with normal microbiota.

A) The infective dose would be the same for both groups of animals.
B) The infective dose would be lower for the gnotobiotic animals.
C) The infective does would be higher for the gnotobiotic animals.

Question 68

Describe the criteria that make up Koch's Postulates and discuss their importance in modern epidemiology.

Question 69

A microbe such as Ebola virus that sickens most everyone that is infected would be characterized as a/an

A) opportunistic pathogen.
B) obligate pathogen.
C) facultative pathogen.
D) true pathogen.

Question 70

Select the noncommunicable disease from the list below.

A) tuberculosis
B) appendicitis
C) chicken pox
D) syphilis

Question 71

Adhesive pili, exotoxins, and capsules are all microbial factors that help them establish infection. These are examples of

A) virulence factors.
B) infectivity factors.
C) pathogenicity factors,
D) exogenous factors.

Question 72

_____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.

Question 73

_____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.

Question 74

All of the following are communicable diseases, except

A) measles.
B) botulism.
C) influenza.
D) pertussis whooping cough).

Question 75

Select 5 specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogen's virulence.

Question 76

Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.

Question 77

_____ are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease.

Question 78

_____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls.

Question 79

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the _____ rate.

Question 80

The collection of genetic material from all of the normal microbiota that reside on the human body is known as the

A) human biome.
B) human microbiome.
C) human microcommunity.
D) human genome.