Deck 3: Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue

Question 1

The outer covering of bone is the

A) endosteum.
B) epiphyseal plate.
C) matrix.
D) periosteum.

Answer 1

periosteum.

Question 2

The combining form for the elbow is

A) epicondyl/o.
B) uln/o.
C) olecran/o.
D) humer/o.

Answer 2

olecran/o.

Question 3

An example of a bone process is a(n)

A) sinus.
B) tuberosity.
C) epiphysis.
D) foramen.

Answer 3

tuberosity.

Question 4

The superior and widest bone of the pelvis is the

A) ileum.
B) pubis.
C) ischium.
D) ilium.

Question 5

The combining form for the breastbone is

A) xiph/o.
B) cleid/o.
C) clavicul/o.
D) stern/o.

Question 6

The shaft of a long bone is the

A) diaphysis.
B) epiphysis.
C) metaphysis.
D) matrix.

Question 7

Bones are the site of a continual process of blood formation called

A) hematopoiesis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) hemolysis.
D) erythremia.

Question 8

The term for the upper jawbone is

A) zygoma.
B) palatine bone.
C) mandible.
D) maxilla.

Question 9

The term for increasing the angle of a joint is

A) abduction.
B) adduction.
C) extension.
D) flexion.

Question 10

The upper arm bone is the

A) femur.
B) humerus.
C) radius.
D) ulna.

Question 11

The sternocleidomastoid muscle attaches to the sternum, the ____, and the mastoid process.

A) scapula
B) breastbone
C) humerus
D) clavicle

Question 12

Processes on the distal ends of the tibia and fibula are

A) metatarsals.
B) malleoli.
C) metacarpals.
D) mallei.

Question 13

An example of a bone depression is a

A) crest.
B) trochanter.
C) fossa.
D) condyle.

Question 14

Fibrous bands of tissue that attach bone to bone are

A) muscles.
B) ligaments.
C) tendons.
D) fasciae.

Question 15

Turning the palm upward is termed

A) dorsiflexion.
B) plantar flexion.
C) pronation.
D) supination.

Question 16

A freely moveable articulation is called a synovial joint or a(n)

A) synarthrosis.
B) amphiarthrosis.
C) diarthrosis.
D) bursa.

Question 17

The combining form for the tailbone is

A) coccyg/o.
B) cervic/o.
C) lumb/o.
D) sacr/o.

Question 18

The term for the lateral protrusion of the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder is

A) xiphoid process.
B) clavicle.
C) acromion process.
D) olecranon.

Question 19

The term for the kneecap is

A) scapula.
B) patella.
C) tibia.
D) femur.

Question 20

Cells that build bone are

A) osteoblasts.
B) osteocytes.
C) osteoclasts.
D) osteons.

Question 21

A ____ fracture is one in which the bone is broken but does not rupture the skin.

A) complicated
B) closed
C) compound
D) compression

Question 22

Overstretching or overuse of a muscle is a

A) dislocation.
B) subluxation.
C) sprain.
D) strain.

Question 23

Inflammation of the bone and the bone marrow is

A) osteomyelitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) osteochondritis.

Question 24

A condition resulting from the partial forward dislocation of one vertebra over the one beneath it is

A) a herniated vertebral disk.
B) spinal stenosis.
C) spondylosis.
D) spondylolisthesis.

Question 25

Fractures that result from an underlying disease are called spontaneous or ____ fractures.

A) compression
B) pathologic
C) greenstick
D) simple

Question 26

A traumatic injury to a joint involving the soft tissue (muscles, ligaments, and tendons) is a

A) dislocation.
B) subluxation.
C) sprain.
D) strain.

Question 27

An inflammatory joint disease that usually has its onset after 40 years of age and is believed to be autoimmune is

A) ankylosing spondylitis.
B) rheumatoid arthritis.
C) osteoarthritis.
D) carpal tunnel syndrome.

Question 28

A stiffening of the vertebral joints is

A) spondylosis.
B) ankylosing spondylitis.
C) spondylolisthesis.
D) spinal stenosis.

Question 29

A fairly common, painful enlargement and inflammation of the first metatarsophalangeal joint is

A) clavus.
B) bunion.
C) contracture.
D) Baker's cyst.

Question 30

A fracture in which the supporting structure of the bone tissue collapses is called a(n) ____ fracture.

A) greenstick
B) hairline
C) compression
D) impacted

Question 31

Extreme posterior curvature of the thoracic area of the spine, commonly known as roundback, is

A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) scoliosis.
D) spinal stenosis.

Question 32

A joint disease characterized by degenerative articular cartilage and a wearing down of the bones' edges at the joint is

A) osteoarthritis.
B) rheumatoid arthritis.
C) ankylosing spondylitis.
D) spinal stenosis.

Question 33

A fracture of the distal end of the radius at the epiphysis is a _____ fracture.

A) comminuted
B) compacted
C) complicated
D) Colles'

Question 34

A disorder characterized by musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, muscle stiffness and spasms, and sleep disturbances is

A) myasthenia gravis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) fibromyalgia.
D) spondylosis.

Question 35

Softening of bone caused by a loss of minerals from the bony matrix as a result of vitamin D deficiency is

A) osteomyelitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteoarthritis.
D) osteomalacia.

Question 36

The stenosis in spinal stenosis refers to an abnormal condition of

A) hardening.
B) softening.
C) narrowing.
D) destruction.

Question 37

A lateral "S" curve of the spine is

A) kyphosis.
B) spinal stenosis.
C) lordosis.
D) scoliosis.

Question 38

Chronic flexion and fixation of a joint caused by atrophy and shortening of muscle fibers after a long period of disuse is

A) scoliosis.
B) contracture.
C) carpal tunnel syndrome.
D) osteoarthritis.

Question 39

Rhabdomy/o is the combining form for

A) striated (skeletal) muscle.
B) smooth muscle.
C) heart muscle.
D) ligaments and muscles.

Question 40

Pain and tenderness of the sciatic nerve through the thigh and the leg is

A) gnathalgia.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) sciatica.
D) cephalgia.

Question 41

Viewing a joint is

A) arthrocentesis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthroscopy.
D) arthrotomy.

Question 42

A bone that is partially out of its joint is a

A) sprain.
B) strain.
C) dislocation.
D) subluxation.

Question 43

The combining form for the shoulder blades is

A) scapul/o.
B) cleid/o.
C) stern/o.
D) acromi/o.

Question 44

The bones in the lower back are the ____ vertebrae.

A) thoracic
B) lumbar
C) cervical
D) sacral

Question 45

Which of the following is a procedure that measures the density of bone?

A) DEXA
B) Myelogram
C) US
D) MRI

Question 46

A minimally invasive procedure designed to address the pain of fractured vertebrae resulting from osteoporosis or cancer is a(n)

A) laminectomy.
B) kyphoplasty.
C) operative ankylosis.
D) spondylosyndesis.

Question 47

A bone that is completely out of place in its joint is a

A) sprain.
B) strain.
C) dislocation.
D) subluxation.

Question 48

An intentional fracture of a bone, usually done to correct a malformation, is

A) operative ankylosis.
B) osteoplasty.
C) osteoclasis.
D) spondylosyndesis.

Question 49

T1 is a bone in the

A) neck.
B) upper back.
C) lower back.
D) tailbone.

Question 50

The procedure that records the electrical activity of muscles is

A) DEXA.
B) MRI.
C) TKR.
D) EMG.

Question 51

Surgical puncture of a joint is

A) arthrocentesis.
B) arthrodesis.
C) arthroplasty.
D) arthrotomy.

Question 52

Binding or stabilization of a joint by operative means is

A) arthrocentesis.
B) arthrodesis.
C) arthroplasty.
D) external fixation.

Question 53

A piece of dead bone is a

A) prosthesis.
B) sequestrum.
C) débridement.
D) contracture.

Question 54

Surgically forming the acromion process is

A) acromiotomy.
B) myorrhexis.
C) arthroplasty.
D) acromioplasty.

Question 55

Loss of bone mass resulting in the bones being fragile and at risk for fractures is

A) osteomalacia.
B) osteomyelitis.
C) osteoporosis.
D) osteoarthritis.

Question 56

Any raised or projected area of bone is a(n)

A) depression.
B) process.
C) epiphysis.
D) diaphysis.

Question 57

Cutting out one of the bony arches of one or more vertebrae to relieve compression of the spinal cord is

A) laminectomy.
B) spinal fusion.
C) closed reduction.
D) arthroplasty.

Question 58

Fixation of an unstable segment of the spine by skeletal traction, immobilization of the patient in a body cast, or stabilization with a bone graft or synthetic device is

A) prosthesis.
B) laminectomy.
C) spondylosyndesis.
D) kyphoplasty.

Question 59

The patient sustained multiple costal fractures. She broke her

A) vertebrae.
B) hipbones.
C) ribs.
D) wrist bones.

Question 60

A patient who has a broken bone might have which of the following abbreviations in his chart?

A) Bx
B) Cx
C) Fx
D) Rx

Question 61

A patient who has an exaggerated anterior curvature of the lumbar vertebrae has

A) osteoarthritis.
B) lordosis.
C) kyphosis.
D) scoliosis.

Question 62

A patient with a suspected hairline fracture of his fibula may have a ____ fracture.

A) femoral
B) peroneal
C) perineal
D) peritoneal

Question 63

Protrusion of the central part of the disk that lies between the vertebrae, resulting in compression of a nerve root and pain, is

A) scoliosis.
B) spondylolisthesis.
C) a herniated intervertebral disk.
D) spinal stenosis.

Question 64

The patient was brought to the emergency department with a fracture of his sternum in which the xiphoid process pierced his right lung. He had a ____ fracture.

A) comminuted
B) Colles'
C) compression
D) complicated

Question 65

A fracture of the kneecap is a _____ fracture.

A) patellar
B) femoral
C) malleolar
D) metatarsal

Question 66

X-ray recording of a joint is

A) arthrograph.
B) arthroscopy.
C) arthrography.
D) arthrogram.

Question 67

The plural of foramen is

A) foramae.
B) foramens.
C) foramina.
D) forameni.

Question 68

A patient who had his leg removed below the knee had a(n)

A) osteoplasty.
B) amputation.
C) bunionectomy.
D) arthroplasty.

Question 69

A tibial fracture required closed reduction of the

A) lower, lateral leg bone.
B) upper arm bone.
C) bones of the ankle, hindfoot, and midfoot.
D) shinbone.

Question 70

The plural of phalanx is

A) phalanxa.
B) phalangi.
C) phalanges.
D) phalanxi.

Question 71

A patient who has an inflammation of the sacs of fluid that cushion the joints has

A) arthritis.
B) bursitis.
C) chondritis.
D) fasciitis.

Question 72

The plural of bursa is

A) bursi.
B) bursum.
C) burses.
D) bursae.

Question 73

The bones that are posterior to the frontal bone and superior to the temporal bones are the _____ bones.

A) vomer
B) occipital
C) ethmoid
D) parietal

Question 74

The football player was on the injured list for 3 weeks after a tenomyoplasty. He had injured his

A) spinal cord and ligaments.
B) muscles and ligaments.
C) muscles and tendons.
D) spinal cord and tendons.

Question 75

A joint disease characterized by degenerative articular cartilage is abbreviated

A) OC.
B) OS.
C) OA.
D) OT.

Question 76

If a bone does not mend and realign correctly, it is considered a

A) malunion.
B) reduction.
C) débridement.
D) sequestrum.

Question 77

ends of the shafts of a long bone is

A) diaphyses.
B) epicondyles.
C) epiphyses.
D) metaphyses.

Question 78

A patient who was hospitalized for a replacement of the head of the femur and acetabulum of the hip had a

A) THR.
B) TKR.
C) DEXA.
D) ROM.

Question 79

A boxer sustained a fracture to his left cheekbone. It was recorded as a simple ____ fracture.

A) lacrimal
B) palatine
C) mandibular
D) zygomatic

Question 80

A chronic inflammatory disease of idiopathic origin that causes a fusion of the spine is

A) spinal stenosis.
B) ankylosing spondylitis.
C) radiculitis.
D) lordosis.