Deck 18: Practical Applications of Immunology

Question 1

A patient's serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti- sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium?

A) Bacteria fluoresce.
B) No hemolysis occurs.
C) Hemagglutination occurs.
D) Hemolysis occurs.
E) Hemagglutination- inhibition occurs.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

What type of vaccine is the live measles virus?

A) subunit vaccine
B) toxoid vaccine
C) attenuated whole- agent vaccine
D) conjugated vaccine
E) nucleic acid vaccine

Answer 2

C

Question 3

In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. In this test process, what is in the second well?

A) mycelia
B) red blood cells
C) antibodies
D) fungal cells
E) a fungal antigen

Answer 3

E

Question 4

A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient's throat swab is the

A) hemagglutination test.
B) hemagglutination- inhibition test.
C) indirect ELISA test.
D) direct fluorescent- antibody test.
E) indirect fluorescent- antibody test.

Question 5

Which of the following uses fluorescent- labeled antibodies?

A) flow cytometry
B) neutralization
C) agglutination
D) complement fixation
E) precipitation

Question 6

Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)

A) conjugated vaccine.
B) attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) toxoid vaccine.
D) nucleic acid vaccine.
E) subunit vaccine.

Question 7

Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using anti- HCG and latex spheres?

A) direct agglutination reaction
B) indirect agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction

Question 8

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)

A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?

A) They require few or no booster immunizations.
B) They stimulate by cell- mediated and humoral immune responses.
C) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
D) They elicit lifelong immunity.
E) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection.

Question 10

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)

A) inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 11

Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n)

A) vaccine.
B) nucleoside analog.
C) toxoid.
D) immunosuppressive.
E) monoclonal antibody.

Question 12

In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient's urine, what is the third step in the test process?

A) the patient's urine sample
B) substrate for the enzyme
C) antibody against the drug being tested
D) enzyme- labeled antibodies against the drug being tested

Question 13

Table 18.1

In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease?

A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D

Question 14

The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step?

A) Culture the hybridoma.
B) Isolate antibody- producing B cells.
C) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
D) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
E) Vaccinate a mouse.

Question 15

Figure 18.1

Which component in Figure 18.1 came from the patient in this ELISA test?

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e

Question 16

All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT

A) parts of bacterial cells.
B) toxoids.
C) inactivated viruses.
D) antibodies.
E) live, attenuated bacteria.

Question 17

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)

A) subunit vaccine.
B) attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) live whole- agent vaccine.
E) nucleic acid vaccine.

Question 18

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)

A) inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 19

Table 18.1

In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?

A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D

Question 20

In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?

A) 6
B) 64
C) 1:6
D) 1:32
E) 32

Question 21

Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antisera?

A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction

Question 22

Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)

A) inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 23

A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen-antibody reaction is called a(n)

A) complement fixation.
B) agglutination reaction.
C) precipitation reaction.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) immunofluorescence.

Question 24

Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they

A) are highly specific.
B) can be produced in large quantities.
C) contain a mixture of antibodies.
D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.
E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture of antibodies.

Question 25

Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)

A) immune complex.
B) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
C) T_C cell response.
D) dendritic cell proliferation.
E) antibody response against gram- positive bacteria.

Question 26

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen- forming lattices is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.
B) immunofluorescence.
C) neutralization reaction.
D) precipitation reaction.
E) complement fixation.

Question 27

A test used to detect anti- Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the

A) indirect fluorescent- antibody test.
B) direct fluorescent- antibody test.

Question 28

The clumping of test cells indicates a negative test result in the

A) direct agglutination test.
B) indirect agglutination test.
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
D) precipitation test.
E) complement- fixation test.

Question 29

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) precipitation reaction.
D) immunofluorescence.
E) neutralization reaction.

Question 30

Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva?

A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction

Question 31

In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this?

A) an ELISA test
B) an agglutination reaction
C) a complement- fixation test
D) a direct test
E) a precipitation reaction

Question 32

Figure 18.1

Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(an)

A) indirect ELISA test.
B) direct ELISA test.
C) hemagglutination test.
D) precipitation test.
E) complement fixation test.

Question 33

Live polio virus can be used in a(n)

A) inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 34

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
C) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
D) The patient may have been vaccinated.
E) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.

Question 35

An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test

A) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.
B) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
C) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
D) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
E) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.

Question 36

Table 18.1

In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?

A) Patients C and D
B) Patients A and C
C) Patients A and D
D) Patients A and B
E) Patients B and C

Question 37

A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an)

A) antigen with a B cell.
B) myeloma cell with a virus.
C) B cell with a myeloma cell.
D) B cell with a T cell.
E) antigen with an antibody.

Question 38

A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)

A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 39

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

A) subunit vaccine
B) toxoid vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) conjugated vaccine

Question 40

Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?

A) direct fluorescent- antibody
B) agglutination
C) indirect ELISA
D) neutralization
E) complement fixation

Question 41

Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.

Question 42

An injection of "naked" DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.

Question 43

The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA.

Question 44

A positive complement- fixation test in indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test.

Question 45

In a vaccine preparation, the term "attenuated" means that the agent does NOT replicate.

Question 46

Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing?

A) vaccinated animals
B) monoclonal antibodies
C) viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies
E) vaccinated animals, monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures

Question 47

Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses.

Question 48

Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?

A) hemolysis
B) hemagglutination
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) hemagglutination- inhibition

Question 49

Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.

Question 50

Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins.

Question 51

Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens.

Question 52

Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?

A) substrate for the enzyme
B) antibodies against the antigen
C) antihuman immune serum
D) antigen

Question 53

A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the

A) hemagglutination- inhibition test.
B) direct fluorescent- antibody test.
C) indirect fluorescent- antibody test.
D) direct ELISA test.
E) direct agglutination test.

Question 54

A highly specific diagnostic test will have very few false negative reactions.

Question 55

In your work in a county public health clinic, you encounter parents of a three- month- old who are considering not vaccinating their child. What concerns might the parents raise regarding vaccine safety? As a microbiology student and public health care worker, what do you say to these parents regarding the risks of not vaccinating their child?