Deck 18: Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders

Question 1

The first two antischizophrenic drugs were

A) Librium and chlorpromazine.
B) chlorpromazine and reserpine.
C) L-DOPA and reserpine.
D) haloperidol and chlorpromazine.
E) haloperidol and Valium.

Answer 1

chlorpromazine and reserpine.

Question 2

About what proportion of the adult population suffers from schizophrenia?

A) 0.01%
B) 0.1%
C) 1%
D) 12%
E) 17%

Answer 2

1%

Question 3

Unlike reserpine, chlorpromazine does not

A) reduce the extracellular levels of dopamine.
B) increase dopamine levels.
C) produce Parkinsonian side effects.
D) cause dementia.
E) function as a dopamine antagonist.

Answer 3

reduce the extracellular levels of dopamine.

Question 4

The active ingredient of snakeroot is

A) chlorpromazine.
B) reserpine.
C) atropine.
D) morphine.
E) chlordiazepoxide.

Question 5

The concordance rate of schizophrenia in monozygotic twins is

A) the same as that in dizygotic twins.
B) the same as that in any two siblings.
C) slightly more than that in husbands and wives.
D) slightly more than that in pairs of unrelated individuals.
E) about 45%.

Question 6

Reserpine is not currently used in the treatment of schizophrenia because it

A) is ineffective.
B) is an antihistamine.
C) can produce a dangerous decrease in blood pressure.
D) is an anxiolytic.
E) violates the dopamine theory of schizophrenia.

Question 7

Dopamine agonist is to dopamine antagonist as

A) reserpine is to chlorpromazine.
B) cocaine is to reserpine.
C) reserpine is to amphetamine.
D) chlorpromazine is to reserpine.
E) amphetamine is to cocaine.

Question 8

Evidence that environmental factors play a role in the etiology of schizophrenia is that the concordance rate for identical twins is

A) greater for males than for females.
B) much less than 100%.
C) much more than 50%.
D) more than for dizygotic twins.
E) greater among cocaine users.

Question 9

Chlorpromazine

A) is a benzodiazepine.
B) exerts an immediate antischizophrenic effect.
C) was originally developed as an antihistamine.
D) is commonly used in the treatment of depression.
E) both A and C

Question 10

Hallucinations associated with schizophrenia often take the form of

A) ghostly shapes.
B) religious figures.
C) flashing lights.
D) imaginary voices making critical comments or telling the patient what to do.
E) the DSM-IV.

Question 11

Studies of monozygotic and dizygotic twins suggest that schizophrenia

A) is caused entirely by genetic factors.
B) is uninfluenced by genetic factors.
C) is greatly influenced by genetic factors.
D) is a mental disorder.
E) doesn't run in families.

Question 12

The main difficulty in diagnosing psychiatric disorders is that

A) patients suffering from the same psychiatric disorder often display different symptoms.
B) patients suffering from different psychiatric disorders often display the same symptoms.
C) dream analysis is subjective and expensive.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

Question 13

Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

A) hallucinations
B) inappropriate affect
C) delusions
D) incoherent speech or thought
E) all of the above

Question 14

Which of the following can trigger schizophrenic episodes at high doses?

A) amphetamine
B) cocaine
C) snakeroot
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 15

Schizophrenia typically begins in

A) infancy.
B) childhood.
C) adolescence or early adulthood.
D) middle age.
E) old age.

Question 16

The symptoms of schizophrenia are often divided into two categories:

A) positive and negative.
B) active and passive.
C) genetic and epigenetic.
D) genetic and experiential.
E) anterograde and retrograde.

Question 17

Which of the following early experiential factors have been implicated in some cases of schizophrenia?

A) stress
B) faulty autoimmune reactions
C) infections
D) exposure to toxins
E) all of the above

Question 18

The probability that a close biological relative (i.e., a parent, sibling, or child) of a patient suffering from schizophrenia will also be diagnosed with schizophrenia is about

A) 1%.
B) 2%.
C) 10%.
D) 35%.
E) 55%.

Question 19

Catatonic schizophrenic patients often experience a unique symptom when somebody moves them:

A) visual hallucinations.
B) waxy flexibility.
C) auditory hallucinations.
D) total rigidity.
E) tremors.

Question 20

A disorder of psychological function sufficiently severe to require treatment by a psychiatrist is called a __________ disorder.

A) neuropsychological
B) psychiatric
C) neurobehavioral
D) neurochemical
E) degenerative

Question 21

Depression is often divided into two categories: reactive depression and __________ depression.

A) bipolar
B) endogenous
C) unipolar
D) acute
E) chronic

Question 22

The clinical effectiveness of typical neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated with the degree to which they bind to

A) dopamine.
B) glutamate receptors.
C) D1 receptors.
D) D2 receptors.
E) autoreceptors.

Question 23

Many of the people who experience clinical depression also experience recurring periods of

A) schizophrenia.
B) Tourette syndrome.
C) mania.
D) panic.
E) epilepsy.

Question 24

To be diagnosed as clinical depression (or major depressive disorder), the condition must

A) last more than 2 weeks.
B) not involve anhedonia.
C) be triggered by an obvious traumatic event.
D) involve a suicide attempt.
E) last less than 2 weeks.

Question 25

Haloperidol is a potent

A) neuroleptic.
B) D2 receptor ligand.
C) antischizophrenic drug.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C

Question 26

Clozapine, like other atypical neuroleptics,

A) is used in the treatment of schizophrenia.
B) does not produce Parkinsonian side effects.
C) has a high affinity for D2 receptors.
D) is more effective than typical neuroleptics against schizophrenia.
E) all of the above

Question 27

The brain damage that is observed in schizophrenic patients

A) is particularly severe in the dopaminergic structures of the brain.
B) is widespread.
C) does not usually become apparent for several years after the original diagnosis.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C

Question 28

LSD and the other classical hallucinogens produce behavioral effects

A) by acting as serotonin agonists.
B) by acting as serotonin antagonists.
C) that mimic the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C

Question 29

The __________ individual typically leaves behind a trail of unfinished projects, unpaid bills, and broken relationships.

A) schizophrenic
B) neuroleptic
C) chronically depressed
D) manic
E) catatonic

Question 30

Clozapine is

A) a typical neuroleptic.
B) the first atypical neuroleptic.
C) a potent D2 blocker.
D) widely used in the treatment of depression.
E) widely used in the treatment of mania.

Question 31

An effective atypical antischizophrenic drug is

A) clozapine.
B) buspirone.
C) reserpine.
D) chlorpromazine.
E) iproniazid.

Question 32

All butyrophenones and those phenothiazines that have a great affinity for D2 receptors are potent

A) barbiturates.
B) antidepressants.
C) neuroleptics.
D) anxiolytics.
E) both B and C

Question 33

In general, conventional neuroleptics tend to be more effective against

A) negative schizophrenic symptoms.
B) positive schizophrenic symptoms.
C) anhedonia.
D) unipolar schizophrenic disorders.
E) bipolar schizophrenic symptoms.

Question 34

Structural brain-imaging studies of schizophrenic patients typically reveal

A) widespread abnormalities.
B) reduced brain size.
C) abnormally large cerebral ventricles.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 35

A major problem with the therapeutic use of neuroleptics in the treatment of schizophrenia is that they

A) help only a small proportion of patients.
B) tend to act on only some symptoms.
C) produce disturbing side effects.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C

Question 36

Psychedelic drugs include the classical hallucinogens and ketamine and phencyclidine, which are classified as

A) psilocybins.
B) dissociative anesthetics.
C) dopamine agonists.
D) dopamine antagonists.
E) both B and D

Question 37

Phenothiazines bind effectively to

A) D1 receptors.
B) D2 receptors.
C) glutamate receptors.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 38

Chlorpromazine binds to dopamine receptors without activating them, and keeps dopamine from binding to them. Accordingly, chlorpromazine is classified as a

A) receptor blocker.
B) dopamine agonist.
C) dopamine antagonist.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

Question 39

The dissociative anesthetics, such as ketamine,

A) act as dopamine agonists.
B) act as dopamine antagonists.
C) produce behavioral effects that mimic the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
D) produce behavioral effects that mimic the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
E) both B and D

Question 40

Because schizophrenia appears to be a neurodevelopmental disorder, several studies have tracked the development of brain damage in schizophrenic patients. Meta-analyses of these studies indicate that

A) extensive brain damage exists when patients first seek medical help and have their first brain scan.
B) brain damage continues to develop after the initial diagnosis.
C) damage to different areas of the brain develops at different rates.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 41

Imipramine is a

A) tricyclic antidepressant.
B) MOA inhibitor.
C) phenothiazine.
D) butyrophenone.
E) serotonin antagonist.

Question 42

Depressed patients who do not experience periods of mania are said to suffer from __________ affective disorders.

A) bipolar
B) reactive
C) unipolar
D) endogenous
E) seasonal

Question 43

Selective norepinephrine-reuptake inhibitors are used in the treatment of

A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) tuberculosis.
D) mania.
E) addiction.

Question 44

The concordance rates for affective disorder are highest for

A) bipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
B) bipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
C) unipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
D) unipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
E) unipolar disorders and siblings.

Question 45

By definition, mood stabilizers act against

A) seasonal affective disorder.
B) depression without increasing mania.
C) mania without increasing depression.
D) lithium.
E) either B or C

Question 46

About what percentage of people suffer from clinical depression at some point in their lives?

A) 1%
B) 0.1%
C) 10%
D) 3%
E) 23%

Question 47

In 1957, this drug became the first drug to be marketed as an antidepressant:

A) iproniazid.
B) imipramine.
C) reserpine.
D) clozapine.
E) lithium.

Question 48

The first tricyclic antidepressant to be marketed

A) was chlorpromazine.
B) was imipramine.
C) eventually proved to be even more effective against stroke.
D) produces a cheese effect.
E) was also an MAO inhibitor.

Question 49

Prozac

A) is a SSRI.
B) is no more effective in treating depression than imipramine.
C) is no more effective in treating depression than SNRIs.
D) has few side effects at therapeutic doses.
E) all of the above

Question 50

Iproniazid, the first antidepressant,

A) was initially developed as an antischizophrenic drug.
B) is even more affective against mania.
C) usually produces dangerous drops in blood pressure.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 51

Lithium has often been used as a treatment for

A) unipolar affective disorder.
B) bipolar affective disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) cocaine psychosis.
E) nausea.

Question 52

Iproniazid is rarely prescribed for the treatment of depression because

A) it is ineffective.
B) of the cheese effect.
C) of the walnut effect.
D) it produces rebound mania.
E) of the peanut effect.

Question 53

Several large scale studies have compared the effectiveness of various antidepressants to placebos. These studies have found that

A) various classes of antidepressants are similarly effective.
B) overall, antidepressants benefitted only 25% more patients than did placebos.
C) antidepressants are of no significant benefit for the mildly or moderately depressed.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 54

Prozac is a slight structural variation of

A) tricyclic antidepressants.
B) lithium.
C) neuroleptics.
D) phenothiazines.
E) MAO inhibitors.

Question 55

MAO inhibitors are no longer used in the treatment of depression because they

A) are totally ineffective against depression.
B) produce tardive dyskinesia.
C) block MAO's ability to break down tyramine.
D) are effective only if they are taken with iproniazid.
E) both A and B

Question 56

Evidence directly linking early stress to the development of clinical depression is

A) abundant.
B) rapidly accumulating.
C) strong.
D) all of the above
E) sparse.

Question 57

Fluoxetine is marketed under the name

A) Prozac.
B) Lithium.
C) Imipramine.
D) Iproniazid.
E) Paxil.

Question 58

Lithium is classified as a

A) mood stabilizer.
B) SSRI.
C) SNRI.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

Question 59

Imipramine

A) is a serotonin and norepinephrine antagonist.
B) blocks the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
C) blocks dopamine receptors.
D) is a dopamine antagonist.
E) both C and D

Question 60

Iproniazid is to imipramine as

A) tricyclic antidepressant is to MAO inhibitor.
B) cheese is to yogurt.
C) MAO inhibitor is to tricyclic antidepressant.
D) depression is to mania.
E) mania is to depression.

Question 61

A meta-analysis of 46 studies indicated that about _________ of individuals will suffer from an anxiety disorder at some point in their lives.

A) 54%
B) 17%
C) 8%
D) 7%
E) 33%

Question 62

Some success has been reported in treating clinical depression with chronic low-level electrical stimulation of the___________ through implanted electrodes.

A) anterior cingulate gyrus of the prefrontal cortex
B) amygdala
C) posterior thalamus
D) hippocampus
E) striatum

Question 63

Disorders characterized by extreme feelings of anxiety and severe stress responses in the absence of an apparent precipitating stimulus are classified as

A) generalized anxiety disorders.
B) panic attacks.
C) phobic anxiety disorders.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorders.
E) tachycardia.

Question 64

Many studies have found structural and functional brain pathology in patients suffering from affective disorders. Although there is little consensus about the exact location of the brain pathology, it is most commonly observed in three structures. These structures include the

A) amygdala and medial prefrontal cortex.
B) hippocampus and medial prefrontal cortex.
C) amygdala and hippocampus.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 65

The monoamine theory of depression is that depression is associated with

A) underactivity at serotonergic and noradrenergic synapses.
B) degeneration of monoamines.
C) decreases in dopamine receptors.
D) monoamine agonists.
E) realignment MAO inhibitors.

Question 66

It has been estimated that benzodiazepines are currently being used by approximately __________ of adult North Americans.

A) 10%
B) 2%
C) 1%
D) 19%
E) 33%

Question 67

Librium and Valium are

A) chlordiazepoxide and diazepam, respectively.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) commonly prescribed for the treatment of schizophrenia.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 68

Most prevalent of all psychiatric disorders are the __________ disorders.

A) manic
B) anxiety
C) schizophrenic
D) depressive
E) phobic

Question 69

When insufficient neurotransmitter is released at a synapse, there is often compensatory __________ of the receptors?

A) up-regulation
B) degeneration
C) regeneration
D) blockade
E) realignment

Question 70

Which of the following symptoms is not commonly associated with anxiety disorders?

A) tachycardia
B) hypotension
C) high blood pressure
D) nausea
E) breathing difficulties

Question 71

Drugs that reduce depression without increasing mania or reduce mania without increasing depression are called

A) mood stabilizers.
B) SSRIs.
C) tricyclic antidepressants.
D) MAO inhibitors.
E) monoamines.

Question 72

The neuroplasticity theory of depression is that depression is caused by

A) an increase in neuroplastic processes in the prefrontal cortex.
B) a decrease in neuroplastic processes in the prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala.
C) abnormal neuroplastic processes in the hypothalamus.
D) abnormal neuroplastic processes throughout the limbic system.
E) both C and D

Question 73

When anxiety disrupts normal behavioral functioning, it is generally referred to as

A) fear.
B) hypertension
C) an anxiety disorder.
D) a panic disorder.
E) a phobia.

Question 74

Chronic fear that persists in the absence of any direct threat is known as

A) psychological fear.
B) anxiety.
C) panic.
D) a phobia.
E) the Selye syndrome.

Question 75

Phobic disorders, panic disorders, and obsessive compulsive disorders are all categories of

A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety disorder.
D) mania.
E) unipolar affective disorder.

Question 76

Remarkably, a single injection of ketamine alleviates depression

A) totally for about 1 hour.
B) for over a week.
C) within hours.
D) and is widely used in its treatment.
E) both B and C

Question 77

Support for the neuroplasticity of depression comes from the discovery that ketamine

A) alleviates depression within hours.
B) stimulates widespread synaptogenesis.
C) eliminates mania.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 78

Disorders characterized by recurring uncontrollable anxiety-producing thoughts and impulses are classified as __________ disorders.

A) panic
B) phobic
C) obsessive-compulsive
D) schizophrenic
E) manic-depressive

Question 79

Anxiety disorders are

A) now reasonably rare.
B) the most prevalent of all psychiatric disorders.
C) often treated with benzodiazepines or serotonin agonists.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C

Question 80

The monoamine theory of depression is based on the fact that

A) depressed people have high levels of monoamine.
B) depressed people have low levels of monoamine.
C) most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine agonists.
D) most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine antagonists.
E) both A and D