Deck 8: The Gynecological Examination and Prenatal Care

Question 1

Which of the following is an advantage of the liquid-based Pap method?

A) Almost all of the Pap specimen is preserved.
B) Debris is removed from the specimen.
C) The cells are dispersed in a thin even layer on the slide.
D) All of the above

Answer 1

All of the above

Question 2

In preparation for a gynecological examination,the patient should be instructed to

A) empty her bladder,if needed.
B) undress completely.
C) wear the examining gown with the opening in front.
D) breathe deeply,slowly,and evenly during the examination.
E) All of the above

Answer 2

All of the above

Question 3

Almost all cervical cancers are caused by

A) HIV.
B) HPV.
C) Hepatitis B.
D) having multiple sexual partners.

Answer 3

HPV.

Question 4

When collecting a specimen for a Pap test,the ectocervical specimen is obtained using

A) the S-shaped end of the spatula.
B) the rounded end of the spatula.
C) a moistened cotton-tipped applicator.
D) a cytology brush.

Question 5

It is recommended that a Pap specimen not be collected

A) 10 to 20 days after the first day of the last menstrual period.
B) when a patient has a low-grade fever.
C) during a woman's menstrual period.
D) if a patient has a urinary tract infection.

Question 6

Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination?

A) For easier insertion of the vaginal speculum
B) To make the examination easier for the patient
C) To make it easier for the provider to perform the bimanual pelvic examination
D) To reduce patient discomfort
E) All of the above

Question 7

In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?

A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Lithotomy
D) Dorsal recumbent

Question 8

Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination?

A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Sims
E) Knee-chest

Question 9

The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination

A) once each week.
B) once each month.
C) every 2 months.
D) twice each year.

Question 10

The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as

A) puberty.
B) dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
C) amenorrhea.
D) pregnancy.

Question 11

The function of a vaginal speculum is to

A) magnify the cervix.
B) hold the walls of the vagina apart.
C) aspirate secretions from the uterus.
D) lubricate the vaginal wall.

Question 12

A complete gynecological examination consists of a

A) breast and pelvic examination.
B) breast examination.
C) pap test.
D) bimanual pelvic examination.

Question 13

What is the purpose of the Pap test?

A) Early detection of cervical cancer
B) Diagnosis of gonorrhea
C) Evaluation of the cause of infertility
D) Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding
E) All of the above

Question 14

The patient should be instructed not to douche before having a Pap smear taken,because douching

A) changes the pH of the vagina.
B) results in a false-positive test result.
C) changes the appearance of the epithelial cells.
D) reduces the number of cells available for analysis.

Question 15

Pain associated with the menstrual period is known as

A) dysmenorrhea.
B) dysplasia.
C) dysuria.
D) dyspareunia.

Question 16

The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes

A) whether or not the patient has HIV.
B) a brief description of abnormal findings.
C) categorization of the results in classes I through V.
D) a detailed description of any abnormal findings.

Question 17

Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?

A) Inspection of the external genitalia,vagina,and cervix
B) Collection of a specimen for a Pap test
C) Bimanual pelvic examination
D) Rectal-vaginal examination
E) All of the above

Question 18

The purpose of the maturation index is to

A) provide the provider with an endocrine evaluation.
B) diagnose pregnancy.
C) determine the presence of a vaginal infection.
D) detect a precancerous condition of the cervix.
E) All of the above

Question 19

Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with

A) prenatal care.
B) diseases of the reproductive organs of women.
C) diseases of geriatric patients.
D) care of the newborn.

Question 20

Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as

A) metrorrhagia.
B) dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
C) hemorrhaging.
D) dyspareunia.

Question 21

The purpose of the past medical history is to obtain information from the patient on

A) conditions that may affect the health of the mother and fetus.
B) drug allergies.
C) her menstrual cycle.
D) previous pregnancies.

Question 22

Gonorrhea is transmitted through

A) droplet infection.
B) sexual intercourse.
C) contaminated water.
D) insects.

Question 23

What is the purpose of prenatal care?

A) To prevent disease
B) To promote health
C) To provide prenatal education
D) Early detection of problems
E) All of the above

Question 24

Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidiasis?

A) A patient with poor hygiene
B) A patient with irregular menstrual periods
C) A patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy
D) A patient with multiple sexual partners

Question 25

What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under the microscope?

A) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline.
B) A culture medium is inoculated with the vaginal discharge.
C) The swab containing the discharge is placed in a transport medium.
D) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of KOH.

Question 26

The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a

A) yeast.
B) motile protozoan.
C) bacterium.
D) virus.

Question 27

Which of the following can be used to diagnose chlamydia and gonorrhea?

A) Culture test
B) Antigen-antibody test
C) DNA-probe test
D) Pregnancy test

Question 28

Which of the following is a symptom of candidiasis?

A) Thick,odorless,cottage cheese-like discharge
B) Vaginal warts
C) Lower abdominal pain
D) Purulent vaginal discharge
E) All of the above

Question 29

Symptoms of chlamydial infection in a female (if they occur)include

A) dysuria.
B) itching.
C) irritation of the genital area.
D) yellowish,odorless vaginal discharge.
E) All of the above

Question 30

Which of the following is not included in the first prenatal visit?

A) Fundal height measurement
B) Pelvic examination
C) Completion of a prenatal record form
D) Determination of fetal presentation and position

Question 31

The purpose of the prenatal record is to

A) provide information on the past health status of the patient.
B) identify high-risk patients.
C) provide information on the present health status of the patient.
D) serve as a flow sheet for prenatal visits.
E) All of the above

Question 32

Mrs.Long is pregnant for the fourth time.The first pregnancy was carried to term but ended in the birth of a stillborn.Mrs.Long lost the second pregnancy at 3 months' gestation.The third pregnancy resulted in the birth of twin girls.How would you record this information in the patient's chart?

A) G 4,T 3,P 0,A 1,L 2
B) G 4,T 2,P 0,A 1,L 2
C) G 4,T 1,P 0,A 1,L 1
D) G 3,T 3,P 0,A 1,L 2

Question 33

The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to

A) detect the presence of a vaginal infection.
B) collect a Pap smear.
C) determine the size,shape,and position of the uterus and ovaries.
D) detect the presence of hemorrhoids and fissures.
E) All of the above

Question 34

Chlamydial infection often occurs in association with

A) genital warts.
B) gonorrhea.
C) syphilis.
D) hepatitis B.

Question 35

Which of the following is not a symptom of trichomoniasis?

A) Profuse,frothy vaginal discharge
B) Red spots on the cervix
C) Itching of the vulva and vagina
D) Abdominal pain

Question 36

If left untreated,a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in

A) pelvic inflammatory disease.
B) cervical cancer.
C) dysmenorrhea.
D) cervical erosion.

Question 37

If Candida albicans is present,what would be observed under the microscope?

A) Yeast buds,spores,and hyphae
B) Motile protozoa
C) Gram-negative diplococci
D) Nits and eggs

Question 38

In the absence of complications,the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after the patient

A) exhibits the signs and symptoms of pregnancy.
B) misses her first menstrual period.
C) misses her second menstrual period.
D) obtains positive results on a pregnancy test.

Question 39

The drug commonly employed to treat trichomoniasis is

A) nystatin (Mycostatin).
B) tetracycline (Sumycin).
C) amoxicillin (Amoxil).
D) metronidazole (Flagyl).

Question 40

Which of the following is not a characteristic of gonorrhea in a male?

A) Whitish discharge that may progress to a thick and creamy discharge
B) Enlargement of the prostate gland
C) Dysuria
D) Progression to epididymitis,if not treated

Question 41

The purpose of measuring fundal height is to

A) diagnose pregnancy.
B) determine the presence of fetal distress.
C) assess whether fetal growth is progressing normally.
D) determine the degree of cervical dilation and effacement.

Question 42

What is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy?

A) Hypertension
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Preeclampsia
D) Gestational diabetes

Question 43

What is the LMP?

A) The date of the last day of the last menstrual period
B) The duration of the last menstrual period
C) The date of the first day of the last menstrual period
D) The length of the interval between menstrual periods

Question 44

The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to

A) establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient.
B) record medications being taken by the patient.
C) determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy.
D) calculate the EDD.
E) All of the above

Question 45

If not treated,infection of the infant's eyes with gonorrhea during delivery could result in

A) cataracts.
B) detached retina.
C) blindness.
D) glaucoma.

Question 46

What must the patient do to prepare for transabdominal obstetric ultrasound?

A) Fast for 12 hours before the scan.
B) Eat a light meal 2 hours before the scan.
C) Consume 32 oz of fluid 1 hour before the scan.
D) Avoid sexual intercourse for 2 days before the scan.

Question 47

The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to

A) record weight,blood pressure,and urine testing results.
B) determine the presence of any concerns or problems.
C) determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy.
D) record the fetal heart tones and fundal height.
E) All of the above

Question 48

What is the EDD of a patient whose LMP was September 5,2016?

A) 12/12/17
B) 6/2/17
C) 6/12/17
D) 12/2/17

Question 49

When is a pregnant woman tested for group B Streptococcus?

A) 18-20 weeks
B) 24-28 weeks
C) 35-37 weeks
D) Just after delivery

Question 50

What is the usual schedule of prenatal visits during the first 28 weeks of gestation?

A) Twice each week
B) Every week
C) Every 2 weeks
D) Every 4 weeks

Question 51

What is the normal range for the fetal pulse rate?

A) 80-120 beats/min
B) 100-140 beats/min
C) 120-160 beats/min
D) 140-180 beats/min

Question 52

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector?

A) The FHT can first be detected between 2 and 4 weeks of gestation.
B) The fetal heart rate is digitally displayed on a screen.
C) Sound waves are used to detect the fetal pulse.
D) A coupling gel must be used to increase conductivity.

Question 53

An infant infected with group B Streptococcus during delivery may develop

A) septicemia.
B) meningitis.
C) pneumonia.
D) All of the above

Question 54

The multiple marker test is used to detect which of the following fetal abnormalities?

A) Kidney problems
B) Neural tube defects
C) Cleft palate
D) Cerebral palsy
E) All of the above

Question 55

All of the following are warning signs during pregnancy except:

A) Heartburn
B) Vaginal bleeding
C) Blurred vision
D) Abdominal pain

Question 56

Which of the following urine tests is performed at each return prenatal visit?

A) Glucose and protein
B) Glucose and ketone bodies
C) Specific gravity and pH
D) Pregnancy test

Question 57

Which of the following is performed during the initial prenatal examination?

A) Measurement of vital signs
B) Physical examination
C) Breast examination
D) Pelvic examination
E) All of the above

Question 58

Amniocentesis can be used to

A) aid in the diagnosis of congenital abnormalities.
B) assess fetal lung maturity.
C) determine the gender of the fetus.
D) detect fetal distress.
E) All of the above

Question 59

A vaginal examination is usually performed as the patient nears term.All of the following are reasons for performing this examination except:

A) To confirm the presenting part
B) To determine the degree of cervical dilation
C) To determine the degree of cervical effacement
D) To determine when the patient will go into labor

Question 60

Obstetric ultrasound is used to

A) detect ectopic pregnancy.
B) determine gestational age.
C) detect the presence of multiple fetuses.
D) determine the position of the placenta.
E) All of the above

Question 61

What term describes the period of time in which the body systems are returning to their prepregnant state?

A) Postpartum
B) Puerperium
C) Perineum
D) Postperium

Question 62

Which of the following does not need to be reported to the provider?

A) The lochia discharge is absent within the first 2 weeks after delivery.
B) The lochia discharge increases rather than decreases.
C) The lochia changes to yellowish white after having been red.
D) The lochia has a foul odor.

Question 63

Which of the following conditions may warrant fetal heart rate monitoring?

A) Decreased fetal activity
B) Fetal growth that is not progressing well
C) Overdue baby
D) Gestational diabetes mellitus
E) All of the above

Question 64

All of the following are performed during the 6-week postpartum visit except:

A) Breast examination
B) Pelvic examination
C) Rectovaginal examination
D) Pap test