Deck 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures

Question 1

The Snellen eye chart is used to

A) assess visual acuity.
B) diagnose conjunctivitis.
C) assess peripheral vision.
D) diagnose glaucoma.
E) All of the above

Answer 1

assess visual acuity.

Question 2

Near visual acuity testing is conducted with the patient holding the test card

A) at a distance of 14-16 inches.
B) at a distance of 30 inches.
C) parallel to the patient's line of vision.
D) in a vertical position for 10 seconds.

Answer 2

at a distance of 14-16 inches.

Question 3

Which of the following represents an error in Snellen eye testing technique?

A) Positioning the chart at the patient's eye level
B) Having the patient keep his or her glasses on for distance vision
C) Instructing the patient not to squint during the test
D) Asking the patient to close the eye not being tested

Answer 3

Asking the patient to close the eye not being tested

Question 4

A person who cannot see close objects has a condition known as

A) myopia.
B) strabismus.
C) cataracts.
D) hyperopia.

Question 5

How much time should the patient be given to identify the number on each Ishihara color plate?

A) 3 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 1 minute
D) As long as needed

Question 6

The transparent part of the eye that covers the pupil and the iris is the

A) sclera.
B) cornea.
C) choroid.
D) lens.

Question 7

Refraction is

A) dilation of the pupil.
B) ability of the eye to bend light rays so that they can be focused on the retina.
C) ability of the eye to distinguish colors.
D) transmission of light stimuli from the optic nerve to the brain.

Question 8

What is the most common color vision defect?

A) Acquired color vision defects
B) Total color blindness
C) Congenital color vision defects
D) Green-blue color vision defect

Question 9

A person who cannot see objects at a distance has a condition known as

A) hyperopia.
B) presbyopia.
C) myopia.
D) amblyopia.

Question 10

A Snellen eye test is conducted at a distance of

A) 30 inches.
B) 10 feet.
C) 20 feet.
D) 40 feet.

Question 11

A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/40 in the left eye.At what distance would a person with normal acuity be able to read this line?

A) 20 feet
B) 30 feet
C) 40 feet
D) 60 feet

Question 12

Which of the following individuals interprets and fills ophthalmic prescriptions such as a prescription for eyeglasses?

A) Optician
B) Optometrist
C) Oculist
D) Orthopedist

Question 13

The Snellen Big E chart is used for assessing

A) elderly individuals.
B) individuals with cataracts.
C) preschoolers.
D) school-age children.

Question 14

An optometrist performs all of the following except:

A) Diagnoses and treats eye disorders
B) Prescribes corrective lenses
C) Measures visual acuity
D) Performs eye surgery

Question 15

The outer layer of the eye,composed of tough,white,fibrous connective tissue,is the

A) sclera.
B) cornea.
C) choroid.
D) conjunctiva.

Question 16

Visual acuity refers to

A) sharpness of vision.
B) the ability to distinguish colors.
C) an error of refraction.
D) a weakness in muscle tone of the eye.

Question 17

What is the function of the lens of the eye?

A) To permit the entrance of light rays into the eye
B) To control the size of the pupil
C) To focus light rays on the retina
D) To transmit light rays to the brain

Question 18

Which of the following represents a decrease in the elasticity of the lens as a result of the aging process?

A) Glaucoma
B) Presbyopia
C) Hyperopia
D) Cataracts

Question 19

The conjunctiva

A) lines the retina.
B) covers the front of the eye,including the cornea.
C) covers the iris.
D) covers the front of the eye,except for the cornea.

Question 20

A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/15 in the right eye.At what distance would a person with normal acuity be able to read this line?

A) 10 feet
B) 15 feet
C) 20 feet
D) 25 feet

Question 21

When not in use,Ishihara color plates must be protected from

A) high humidity.
B) light.
C) cold temperatures.
D) loud music.

Question 22

Tympanometry is most useful in diagnosing patients with

A) serous otitis media.
B) conductive hearing loss.
C) sensorineural hearing loss.
D) auditory nerve damage.

Question 23

The function of the ear auricle is to

A) transmit sound waves to the brain.
B) maintain balance and equilibrium.
C) receive and collect sound waves.
D) prevent the entrance of microorganisms into the ear.

Question 24

An ear instillation may be performed to

A) apply heat to the ear.
B) remove discharge from the ear.
C) remove cerumen.
D) treat an ear infection.

Question 25

When performing an eye irrigation,the solution should be released

A) at the outer canthus.
B) toward the upper eyelid.
C) directly onto the cornea.
D) at the inner canthus.

Question 26

Which of the following represents an error in the eye instillation technique?

A) Making sure the medication bears the word ophthalmic
B) Asking the patient to look up before instilling drops
C) Instilling drops onto the center of the cornea
D) Asking the patient to close and roll the eye after the instillation

Question 27

The structure located at the end of the external auditory canal that functions in receiving and transmitting sound waves is the

A) external auditory meatus.
B) incus.
C) cochlea.
D) tympanic membrane.

Question 28

Which of the following can result in sensorineural hearing loss?

A) Impacted cerumen
B) Intense noise
C) Otitis media
D) Otosclerosis
E) All of the above

Question 29

Which of the following is the most specific type of hearing test?

A) Tuning fork test
B) Audiometry
C) Whisper test
D) Otoscopy

Question 30

An eye instillation may be performed to

A) remove a foreign object from the eye.
B) remove eye drainage.
C) flush out a harmful chemical.
D) treat an eye infection.

Question 31

Which of the following structures functions in maintaining equilibrium?

A) Cochlea
B) Auditory nerve
C) Ear ossicles
D) Semicircular canals

Question 32

After performing an ear instillation,the patient is instructed to lie on the unaffected side to

A) avoid pressure on the tympanic membrane.
B) allow complete distribution of the medication.
C) allow drainage of excess medication.
D) prevent dizziness.

Question 33

The eustachian tube connects the nasopharynx to the

A) middle ear.
B) inner ear.
C) external auditory ear canal.
D) cochlea.

Question 34

The range of frequencies for normal speech is

A) 80-120 db.
B) 512-1,024 Hz.
C) 300-4,000 Hz.
D) 6,000-8,000 Hz.

Question 35

Which of the following is an example of a tuning fork test?

A) Decibel test
B) Whisper test
C) Weber test
D) Piano test

Question 36

During ear irrigation,which of the following techniques is performed to prevent injury to the tympanic membrane?

A) Cleansing the outer ear
B) Straightening the external ear canal
C) Injecting the irrigating solution toward the roof of the ear canal
D) Placing a cotton wick loosely in the ear canal

Question 37

The function of cerumen is to

A) inhibit the growth of pathogens.
B) lubricate and protect the ear canal.
C) facilitate the transmission of sound waves.
D) stabilize air pressure in the middle ear.

Question 38

Impacted cerumen can be softened by

A) irrigating the ear with an antiseptic solution.
B) inserting a moistened cotton-tipped applicator into the ear.
C) instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear.
D) placing a heating pad next to the ear.

Question 39

Which of the following can result in conductive hearing loss?

A) Serous otitis media
B) Ototoxicity
C) Old age
D) Pierced ears

Question 40

The external auditory canal of an adult is straightened by

A) pulling outward on the ear auricle.
B) pulling the ear upward and backward.
C) asking the patient to look up.
D) pulling the ear downward and backward.