Deck 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures

Question 1

Electrical voltage received by the electrocardiograph is changed to mechanical motion in the

A) stylus.
B) galvanometer.
C) amplifier.
D) patient cable.

Answer 1

galvanometer.

Question 2

The left atrium receives

A) deoxygenated blood from the body.
B) oxygenated blood from the left ventricle.
C) oxygenated blood from the lungs.
D) deoxygenated blood from the lungs.

Answer 2

oxygenated blood from the lungs.

Question 3

Which of the following conditions can cause the ECG tracing to exhibit a larger than normal Q wave and an elevated S-T segment?

A) Congestive heart failure
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Hypertrophy of the heart
D) Coronary artery disease

Answer 3

Myocardial infarction

Question 4

Which electrode is used as a ground reference?

A) Right arm
B) Right leg
C) Left arm
D) Left leg

Question 5

Electrocardiography is used to

A) detect a dysrhythmia.
B) evaluate chest pain or shortness of breath.
C) detect the presence of cardiac ischemia.
D) determine the presence of hypertrophy of the heart.
E) All of the above

Question 6

An electrolyte must be used when running an ECG to

A) facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses of the heart.
B) reduce the amount of dryness of the skin.
C) protect the patient from shocks that are generated by the electrocardiograph.
D) amplify the electrical impulses coming from the heart.

Question 7

All of the following are guidelines for electrodes except:

A) Check the expiration date on the electrode pouch before use.
B) After use,reseal the electrode pouch and place it in a plastic bag.
C) Do not use a dried out electrode.
D) Store electrodes in a refrigerator.

Question 8

What structure in the heart delays the electrical impulse momentarily to allow for complete contraction of the atria and filling of the ventricles with blood from the atria?

A) Bundle of His
B) AV node
C) SA node
D) Cuspid valves

Question 9

Blood enters the right atrium from the

A) pulmonary artery.
B) superior and inferior venae cavae.
C) pulmonary veins.
D) aorta.

Question 10

How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 15 mm
D) 20 mm

Question 11

Leads 1,2,and 3 are the

A) bipolar leads.
B) chest leads.
C) augmented leads.
D) precordial leads.

Question 12

What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves?

A) Segment
B) Baseline
C) Interval
D) Polarization line

Question 13

What is the name of the structure in the heart that distributes the electrical impulse to the ventricles?

A) Epicardium
B) Endocardium
C) Bundle of His
D) Purkinje fibers

Question 14

What is the name of the knot of modified myocardium that initiates and regulates the heartbeat?

A) Medulla
B) AV node
C) SA node
D) Bundle branches

Question 15

A disposable electrode is held in place by

A) a rubber strap.
B) a vacuum cup.
C) an adhesive backing on the electrode.
D) superglue.

Question 16

Which chamber pumps the blood from the heart and into the aorta for distribution to all parts of the body?

A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle

Question 17

How many leads are there on a standard electrocardiogram?

A) 5
B) 7
C) 12
D) 15

Question 18

What is a cardiac cycle?

A) Contraction of the atria
B) One complete heartbeat
C) Relaxation of the entire heart
D) Contraction of the ventricles

Question 19

An electrocardiogram is a recording of the

A) electrical activity of the heart.
B) opening and closing of the valves of the heart.
C) force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels.
D) contraction and relaxation of the ventricles.

Question 20

A device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses released by the heart is known as

A) a lead wire.
B) an amplifier.
C) an electrode.
D) an electrolyte.

Question 21

Touching or moving electrodes during the Holter monitoring period may cause

A) malfunctioning of the recorder.
B) drying out of the electrolyte.
C) a dysrhythmia.
D) artifacts.
E) All of the above

Question 22

All of the following result in muscle artifacts except:

A) Patient discomfort
B) An apprehensive patient
C) Electrodes that have come loose
D) Patient coughing or talking

Question 23

Which of the following is true regarding PVCs?

A) They are common with mitral valve prolapse.
B) They are one of the most common rhythm disturbances.
C) A wide and distorted QRS complex is present.
D) They may be caused by anxiety,smoking,and caffeine.
E) All of the above are true.

Question 24

What are artifacts?

A) The marking code recorded by the ECG to indicate which lead is being run
B) Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
C) A type of standardization mark
D) Rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru

Question 25

Which of the following artifacts appears as small,straight,spiked lines that are consistent in nature?

A) Muscle
B) Wandering baseline
C) Alternating current
D) Interrupted baseline

Question 26

Which of the following is considered the most serious cardiac dysrhythmia?

A) Atrial flutter
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Ventricular fibrillation

Question 27

Where is chest lead V₅ located?

A) Midway between V₄ and V₆
B) At the fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
C) At the horizontal level of V₄ at the left anterior axillary line
D) At the horizontal level of V₄ at the left midaxillary line

Question 28

The aVR,aVL,and aVF are known as the

A) standard leads.
B) chest leads.
C) augmented leads.
D) bipolar leads.

Question 29

Electrocardiograms are normally recorded with the paper moving at a speed of

A) 25 mm/sec.
B) twice the normal standard.
C) one-half standard.
D) 50 mm/sec.

Question 30

Which of the following should be recorded in the Holter monitor diary notebook?

A) Meals
B) Emotional states
C) Bowel movements
D) Sleep periods
E) All of the above

Question 31

The purpose of pulmonary function testing is to

A) dilate the bronchial tubes to increase airflow.
B) remove mucus from the bronchial tubes.
C) detect cardiac dysrhythmias.
D) assess lung functioning.

Question 32

What term is used to refer to an electrocardiogram result that is within normal limits?

A) Sinus arrhythmia
B) Baseline recording
C) Normal sinus rhythm
D) WNL

Question 33

Which of the following are guidelines for wearing a Holter monitor?

A) Do not consume alcohol or caffeinated beverages.
B) Limit physical activity.
C) Do not use a wool blanket for sleeping.
D) Do not shower,bathe,or swim.
E) All of the above are accurate guidelines.

Question 34

All of the following are guidelines for patient preparation for an ECG except:

A) Do not consume food or fluids except water for 12 hours before the ECG.
B) Women should not wear tights.
C) Do not apply body lotion or oil on the day of the test.
D) Wear comfortable clothing.

Question 35

Chest lead V₂ is located at the

A) fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum.
B) fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line.
C) fifth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum.
D) fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum.

Question 36

Which of the following represents an error in technique when running an electrocardiogram?

A) Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
B) Working on the left side of the patient
C) Instructing the patient to lie still and not to talk during the procedure
D) Positioning the limb electrodes on the fleshy part of the upper arms and lower legs

Question 37

Which of the following is not a characteristic of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PVST)?

A) Rapid fluttering of the atrium
B) Sudden onset and termination of symptoms
C) Increase in heart rate of the patient
D) Patient weakness and acute apprehension

Question 38

Which of the following may cause a 60-cycle interference artifact?

A) Patient movement
B) Lead wires not following body contour
C) A broken patient cable
D) Parkinson's disease

Question 39

Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to

A) assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily activities.
B) evaluate patients with unexplained chest pain.
C) detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature.
D) assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker.
E) All of the above

Question 40

All of the following are examples of pulmonary function tests except:

A) Coronary angiography
B) Diffusion capacity
C) Arterial blood gas studies
D) Pulse oximetry

Question 41

All of the following may require home oxygen therapy except:

A) COPD
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Hepatitis
D) Cystic fibrosis

Question 42

Which of the following may occur when the body cannot maintain an adequate oxygen level?

A) Death of cells
B) Organ failure
C) Body system failure
D) Death
E) All of the above

Question 43

The purpose of a peak flow meter is to

A) diagnose asthma.
B) prevent an asthma attack.
C) measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs.
D) deliver asthma medication to the lungs.

Question 44

All of the following are patient preparation requirements for spirometry except:

A) Do not eat a heavy meal for 8 hours before the test.
B) Wear loose,nonrestrictive clothing.
C) Do not take aspirin for 4 hours before the test.
D) Stop smoking at least 8 hours before the test.

Question 45

Which of the following oxygen delivery systems separates oxygen from the air for use by the patient?

A) Compressed oxygen gas
B) Liquid oxygen
C) Oxygen concentrator
D) Oxygen compressor

Question 46

What is the purpose of calibrating the spirometer?

A) To prevent abnormal test results
B) To ensure all pathogens have been removed from the device
C) To make it easier for the patient to perform the breathing maneuvers
D) To ensure accurate and valid test results

Question 47

All of the following are characteristics of asthma except:

A) It is a chronic disease with no cure.
B) Its symptoms include wheezing,shortness of breath,and chest tightness.
C) It primarily affects the alveolar ducts and alveoli of the lungs.
D) It most often affects children and young adults.

Question 48

All of the following are guidelines for measuring peak flow rate except:

A) Tightly seal the lips around the mouthpiece.
B) Take a deep breath until the lungs are full.
C) Blow all the air out of the lungs as fast as possible.
D) Calculate an average of three acceptable breathing maneuvers.

Question 49

What information is included on a prescription for home oxygen therapy?

A) Amount of oxygen needed by the patient
B) Duration of oxygen needed by the patient
C) Recommended oxygen delivery system
D) Administration device
E) All of the above

Question 50

In spirometry,the predicted value means

A) what the results should be if the patient's lungs are healthy.
B) what the results should be for a patient with COPD.
C) the amount of air that can be pushed out of the lungs in 1 second.
D) how much damage has been done to the lungs.

Question 51

Peak flow measurements can be used for all of the following except:

A) To monitor how well the patient's asthma is being controlled
B) To determine if a patient's medication needs to be changed
C) To determine the severity of an asthma attack
D) To determine if lung damage has occurred

Question 52

All of the following are indications for spirometry except:

A) A patient complaining of dyspnea
B) A patient with emphysema
C) A patient who has worked in the coal mines for 20 years
D) A patient with an upper respiratory infection

Question 53

All of the following can lead to inaccurate peak flow measurements except:

A) Patient is fearful and anxious.
B) Not moving the indicator to the bottom of the numbered scale.
C) Not changing the disposable mouthpiece between patients.
D) A crack in the peak flow meter.

Question 54

Which of the following devices measures how much air is exhaled by the lungs and how fast it is exhaled?

A) Tympanogram
B) Spirometer
C) Pulse oximeter
D) Blood gas analyzer

Question 55

Which of the following is a characteristic of quick-relief asthma medication?

A) It quickly opens up the airways.
B) It is usually taken every day.
C) It is used to prevent asthma symptoms.
D) It helps to relieve bronchial inflammation.
E) All of the above.

Question 56

What happens to the bronchial tubes during an asthma attack?

A) They dilate and go into a spasm.
B) They become hard and stiff.
C) They become hyposensitive to allergens.
D) They constrict,swell,and become clogged with mucus.

Question 57

All of the following are characteristics of a low range peak flow meter except:

A) Can be purchased OTC
B) Is used by adults
C) Is used by children
D) Ranges from 0 to 300

Question 58

Which of the following are asthma triggers?

A) House dust
B) Tobacco smoke
C) Animal dander
D) Vigorous physical exercise
E) All of the above

Question 59

Oxygen combines with glucose in the cells of the body to produce

A) lactose.
B) adrenalin.
C) energy.
D) insulin.

Question 60

All of the following are symptoms of a low oxygen level in the body except:

A) Cyanosis of the lips and fingernails
B) Erythema and hives
C) Drowsiness and confusion
D) Difficult or irregular breathing

Question 61

All of the following are guidelines for oxygen usage except:

A) Store in a clean,dry,well-ventilated room.
B) Store oxygen cylinders in an upright position.
C) Never smoke while using oxygen.
D) Use at least 50 feet of tubing with the oxygen delivery system.

Question 62

All of the following are characteristics of a nasal cannula except:

A) Most frequently used device for administering home oxygen therapy
B) Contains two prongs that are inserted into the patient's nose
C) Does not interfere with the patient's ability to talk,eat,or drink
D) Used for patients who need a high flow of oxygen