Deck 5: The Eye

Question 1

Which of the following is true concerning adjustment of diopters during funduscopic examination?

A) Moving toward more positive diopters shifts examiner's focus posteriorly
B) Moving toward more negative diopters shifts examiner's focus posteriorly
C) Moving toward more positive diopters broadens the examiner's field of view
D) Moving toward more negative diopters broadens the examiner's field of view

Answer 1

Moving toward more negative diopters shifts examiner's focus posteriorly

Question 2

A patient describes a brief episode of visual impairment as if a dark shade was gradually coming down over one eye. The vision returned a moment later. This is most commonly described in which condition?

A) Glaucoma
B) Cataracts
C) Amaurosis fugax
D) Macular degeneration

Answer 2

Amaurosis fugax

Question 3

The most common cause of eye redness is:

A) Conjunctivitis
B) Acute glaucoma
C) Head trauma
D) Corneal abrasion

Answer 3

Conjunctivitis

Question 4

A clinician can assess the alignment of the eyes by all of the following except:

A) Checking for a symmetric light reflex
B) Observing eye movements
C) Performing cover/uncover examination
D) Measuring the palpebral gap

Question 5

An Amsler grid is used to evaluate which of the following conditions?

A) Optic neuritis
B) Macular degeneration
C) Amaurosis fugax
D) Retinal detachment

Question 6

In which of the following conditions do patients often describe a sudden, large flash of light with gradual loss of vision in one eye?

A) Amaurosis fugax
B) Acute glaucoma
C) Temporal arteritis
D) Retinal detachment

Question 7

Your patient describes blurry vision, as well as halos and glares, in response to bright lights or when driving in the dark. There is no pain. These are symptoms of:

A) Glaucoma
B) Macular degeneration
C) Cataracts
D) Diabetic retinopathy

Question 8

While assessing visual acuity, you notice that the patient is turning his head side to side for an oblique, or peripheral, view of the Snellen chart, raising your suspicion that the patient may suffer from:

A) Glaucoma
B) Cataract
C) Macular degeneration
D) Amaurosis fugax

Question 9

The most common type of eye disorder is:

A) Refractive errors
B) Macular conditions
C) Neurological conditions
D) Astigmatisms

Question 10

Shining a light directly on one pupil should make the other pupil constrict. This is called the:

A) Accommodation response
B) Red reflex
C) Corneal light reflex
D) Consensual pupil response

Question 11

Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?

A) History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
B) History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
C) History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
D) All of the above

Question 12

A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely present with:

A) Allergic conjunctivitis
B) Bacterial conjunctivitis
C) Chemical conjunctivitis
D) Viral conjunctivitis

Question 13

The first assessment to complete related to the eyes is:

A) Eye lids
B) Visual acuity
C) Extraocular movements
D) Peripheral vision

Question 14

The fundoscopic examination allows the clinician to directly observe:

A) Cranial nerve I
B) Cranial nerve II
C) Cranial nerve III
D) Cranial nerve IV

Question 15

It is important to not dilate the eye if _________________ is suspected.

A) Cataract
B) Macular degeneration
C) Acute closed-angle glaucoma
D) Chronic open-angle glaucoma

Question 16

When examining the six cardinal fields of gaze, the clinician is assessing function of all the following except:

A) Cranial nerve II
B) Cranial nerve III
C) Cranial nerve IV
D) Cranial nerve VI

Question 17

Macular degeneration is a visual disturbance most commonly due to:

A) Sudden head trauma
B) Ischemia of the central retinal artery
C) Elevated intraocular pressure
D) Physiological aging

Question 18

A Marcus-Gunn effect involves:

A) Abnormal pupillary responses
B) Abnormal visual acuity
C) Abnormal funduscopic findings
D) Abnormal visual field

Question 19

Your patient has been treated for glaucoma for 5 years. Which of the following will provide indication of the level of progression during the funduscopic examination for this patient?

A) Checking the macula
B) Estimating cup-to-disk ratio
C) Verifying a red reflex
D) Observing extraocular movements

Question 20

Your patient with Crohn's disease complains of eye pain and photophobia. This is likely related to:

A) Symptoms of temporal arteritis
B) Altered pupil response due to uveitis
C) Blurry vision due to bilateral cataracts
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage

Question 21

In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a red flag finding when associated with eye redness?

A) History of prior red-eye episodes
B) Grossly visible corneal defect
C) Exophthalmos
D) Photophobia

Question 22

A 9-month-old patient presents with fever and large areas of redness and bullae over the trunk, palms, legs, and soles of the feet. There is redness and swelling of the conjunctiva and lips. The clinician should recognize this condition as:

A) Giant cell arteritis
B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Botulism
D) Myasthenia gravis

Question 23

Ptosis is commonly the first sign of:

A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Temporal arteritis
D) Myasthenia gravis

Question 24

A 4-day-old newborn presents with redness and tearing of one eye. Slight pressure over the lacrimal sac produces white discharge. The clinician should be aware that the following condition is common in newborns:

A) Conjunctivitis
B) Sinus infection
C) Dacryocystitis
D) Herpes infection

Question 25

Your patient is suffering from herpes zoster along the trigeminal nerve distribution of the face. You should carefully assess for the presence of:

A) Keratitis
B) Uveitis
C) Scleritis
D) Conjunctivitis