Deck 13: Basics of Procedural Coding

Question 1

New patient office visit, comprehensive history, examination, and moderate-complexity decision making

A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204

Answer 1

99204

Question 2

Established patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making

A) 99211
B) 99212
C) 99213
D) 99214

Answer 2

99212

Question 3

Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images

A) 78201
B) 78205
C) 78220
D) 78223

Answer 3

78220

Question 4

New patient, initial inpatient consultation

A) 99251
B) 99252
C) 99253
D) 99254

Question 5

Biopsy of external ear

A) 69090
B) 69100
C) 69140
D) 69150

Question 6

Hospital discharge day management, 45 minutes

A) 99238
B) 99239
C) 99234
D) 99235

Question 7

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

A) 93000
B) 93015
C) 92960
D) 92950

Question 8

New patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making

A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204

Question 9

Serum folic acid

A) 82735
B) 82760
C) 82746
D) 82803

Question 10

Urinalysis

A) 81000
B) 81005
C) 82000
D) 81001

Question 11

Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization

A) 74710
B) 74740
C) 74742
D) 74775

Question 12

Initial hospital observation care, new patient

A) 99217
B) 99218
C) 99219
D) 99220

Question 13

Triglycerides

A) 84476
B) 84477
C) 84478
D) 84479

Question 14

New patient office visit, comprehensive history and examination, high-complexity decision making

A) 99202
B) 99203
C) 99204
D) 99205

Question 15

Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal

A) 71000
B) 71100
C) 71010
D) 71011

Question 16

Suture of a recent wound on the eyelid

A) 67938
B) 67930
C) 67950
D) 67961

Question 17

Breast reduction

A) 19316
B) 19318
C) 19328
D) 19330

Question 18

Thoracentesis, puncture of pleural cavity for aspiration, initial or subsequent

A) 32003
B) 32002
C) 32001
D) 32000

Question 19

Febrile agglutinins, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A) 86000
B) 86001
C) 86010
D) 86011

Question 20

Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal, with catheterization

A) 69399
B) 69401
C) 69400
D) 69405

Question 21

Psychoanalysis

A) 90845
B) 90846
C) 90847
D) 90849

Question 22

Medical records used for procedural coding can include which of the following?

A) Encounter form
B) Progress notes
C) Pathology report
D) Radiology report
E) All of the above

Question 23

When searching the alphabetic index, "humerus" is an example of which of the following?

A) Procedure or service
B) Organ or anatomic site
C) Condition, illness, or injury
D) Eponym, synonym, abbreviation, or acronym

Question 24

Acne surgery, removal of multiple milia, comedones, cysts, pustules

A) 10080
B) 10061
C) 10040
D) 11001

Question 25

Codes with a plus sign are additional codes that must be used with which of the following?

A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B

Question 26

Cyanide

A) 82595
B) 82600
C) 82615
D) 82530

Question 27

Which of the following sections uses the code range between 70000 and 79999?

A) Anesthesia section
B) Surgery section
C) Radiology section
D) Pathology section
E) Medicine section

Question 28

Which of the following codes can be used to help measure performance and outcomes?

A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B

Question 29

Initial nursing facility care, detailed or comprehensive history or examination, straightforward or low-complexity decision making

A) 99304
B) 99305
C) 99306
D) 99307

Question 30

Subsequent nursing facility care, comprehensive interval history and examination, high-complexity medical decisions

A) 99310
B) 99309
C) 99308
D) 99307

Question 31

An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions?

A) Alphabetic index
B) Tabular list
C) Category subsection
D) Both A and B

Question 32

Which of the following is a method of closed treatment of fractures?

A) Without manipulation and/or traction
B) With manipulation and/or traction
C) Fixation device placed across fracture site
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above

Question 33

Initial pediatric inpatient critical care

A) 99296
B) 99295
C) 99294
D) 99293

Question 34

Basic metabolic panel

A) 80048
B) 80050
C) 80051
D) 80053

Question 35

Which of the following levels of history includes a review of the systems that relate to the chief complaint?

A) Problem-focused history
B) Expanded problem-focused history
C) Detailed history
D) Comprehensive history

Question 36

New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making

A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204

Question 37

One time unit in anesthesia coding typically equals which of the following?

A) 1 minute
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 20 minutes

Question 38

When wounds of more than one classification are repaired, list the less complicated repair as the primary procedure and the more complicated repair as the secondary procedure. When multiple wounds are repaired, add together the lengths of those in the same classification.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Question 39

Total splenectomy

A) 38115
B) 38102
C) 38101
D) 38100

Question 40

Established patient, home patient, problem-focused interval history and examination, straightforward medical decision making

A) 99347
B) 99348
C) 99349
D) 99350

Question 41

The CPT is divided into eight sections.

Question 42

Anesthesia coding is based on a billing formula.

Question 43

A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.

Question 44

Which of the following modifiers indicates a professional component and is used when a separate technician performs the service but the provider reviews the report and makes an accurate diagnosis?

A) -50
B) -62
C) -26
D) -RT, -LT

Question 45

A detailed history takes the shortest amount of time.

Question 46

The dollar value of each basic unit value used in anesthesia coding is called the __________.

Question 47

Which of the following HCPCS codes range from A4000 to A8999?

A) Ambulance transport
B) Medical supplies
C) Surgical supplies
D) Durable medical equipment
E) Both B and C

Question 48

Revised codes are not highlighted in the CPT manual.

Question 49

It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.

Question 50

Which of the following codes is assigned to an urgent care facility as the place of service?

A) 01
B) 13
C) 20
D) 23

Question 51

Special symbols used to provide additional information about certain codes are called __________; seven are used in CPT-4 coding.

Question 52

__________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.

Question 53

Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.

Question 54

A(n) __________ code indicates that additional or supplemental procedures carried out in addition to the primary procedure are needed.

Question 55

Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections?

A) Pathology
B) Surgical
C) Anesthesia
D) Medicine

Question 56

Codes that are grouped together and paid as one service or procedure are known as __________.

Question 57

__________ codes are separated and reported individually.

Question 58

__________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.

Question 59

Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.

Question 60

Physical status modifier P4 is assigned to which of the following?

A) Patient with severe systemic disease
B) Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
C) Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the procedure
D) Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

Question 61

Downcoding can increase reimbursements.

Question 62

Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.

Question 63

The place of service never changes for physician billing.