Deck 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health

Question 1

The hypothalamus is located in which part of the CNS?

A) Brainstem
B) Cerebellum
C) Diencephalon
D) B and C

Answer 1

Diencephalon

Question 2

Which statement is not true of a petit mal seizure?

A) It causes a momentary loss of contact with reality.
B) It may occur without others being aware of it.
C) It can be treated with Dilantin or Tegretol.
D) It has a clonic-tonic phase.

Answer 2

It has a clonic-tonic phase.

Question 3

Which condition is not usually associated with injuries caused by accidents?

A) Hemiplegia
B) Cerebral concussion
C) Quadriplegia
D) Paraplegia

Answer 3

Hemiplegia

Question 4

The function of the sympathetic nervous system is to

A) increase blood glucose levels and blood pressure.
B) reducing peristalsis.
C) cause bronchodilation.
D) All of the above

Question 5

If a patient describes seeing an aura before the onset of a severe headache, this often is a sign of

A) a future CVA.
B) a migraine headache.
C) epilepsy.
D) a brain tumor.

Question 6

Which of the following means "inflammation of the covering of the brain"?

A) Meningitis
B) Poliomyelitis
C) Meningocele
D) Meningomyelitis

Question 7

Parkinson's disease

A) affects men more often than women.
B) is caused by a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
C) is progressive and has no cure.
D) All of the above
E) B and C

Question 8

A patient calls to report symptoms that are commonly associated with the flu. However, he has not improved after 2 weeks of rest, so he may have

A) ALS.
B) CVA.
C) encephalitis.
D) MS.

Question 9

The point on a nerve cell where stimuli are passed to the adjacent nerve cell is called the

A) axon.
B) dendrite.
C) nucleus.
D) synapse.

Question 10

Which statement is not true of TIAs?

A) They result from short-term ischemic episodes.
B) They may be precursors to a CVA.
C) They cause permanent neurologic dysfunction.
D) They indicate the need for comprehensive diagnostic evaluation.

Question 11

To which part of the nervous system do the cranial nerves belong?

A) Autonomic
B) Central
C) Parasympathetic
D) Peripheral

Question 12

The tough outer layer of the meninges is the

A) pia mater.
B) arachnoid layer.
C) subdural space.
D) dura mater.

Question 13

Which statement is not true of ALS?

A) It is a progressive neurologic disease that results in muscle atrophy.
B) Death usually occurs because of respiratory failure.
C) It occurs most frequently in women in their 30s.
D) The cause is unknown.

Question 14

Which statement is true about hydrocephalus?

A) It can be diagnosed and treated in utero.
B) Enlargement of the infant's skull is limited, because the skull bones are fused at birth.
C) A shunt must be implanted surgically as soon as possible after birth.
D) Brain damage can be reversed if a shunt is placed surgically immediately after birth.

Question 15

Which statement is not true of multiple sclerosis?

A) Symptoms can be controlled with Rilutek.
B) It causes a wide range of neurologic problems.
C) It is a progressive neurologic disorder without a known cure.
D) Patients with MS have a repeated cycle of exacerbation of symptoms and remission.

Question 16

The cerebellum is responsible for

A) controlling the autonomic nervous system.
B) balance, equilibrium, posture, and muscle coordination.
C) coordinating reflexes.
D) verbal functions (e.g., reading, writing, speaking).

Question 17

Which of the following words means failure or irregularity of muscle actions and coordination?

A) Coma
B) Claudication
C) Ataxia
D) Anteroposterior

Question 18

A subdural hematoma is more likely to occur in which patient?

A) A 2-year-old who trips going down the steps
B) A 28-year-old athlete
C) A high school student playing touch football
D) An elderly patient who falls

Question 19

For which neurologic disorder should patients with hypertension and an elevated cholesterol level be monitored?

A) CVA
B) Brain tumors
C) Migraines
D) ALS

Question 20

The anatomic features of the cerebrum that greatly increase its surface area are the

A) gyri.
B) hemispheres.
C) ventricles.
D) sulci.

Question 21

A serious concern for family members of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is

A) the patient may stop taking the medication when he or she starts feeling better.
B) all medications for the treatment of the condition cause serious side effects.
C) no effective medications exist for the management of this serious mental health disorder.

Question 22

What structure connects the two halves of the brain?

A) Cerebellum
B) Gyri
C) Corpus callosum
D) Cerebrum

Question 23

Which statement is not true about brain tumors?

A) They are always primary tumors.
B) They may be a secondary growth from a tumor located elsewhere in the body.
C) Benign tumors can be fatal.
D) An eye exam reveals papilledema.

Question 24

Patients diagnosed with grand mal seizures may be treated with which of the following medications?

A) Neurontin
B) Cognex
C) Lamictal
D) A and C

Question 25

Which statement is true about the treatment of major depression?

A) Patients can wean themselves off the medication as soon as they start to feel better.
B) The preferred route of administration is SL.
C) Treatment must be continued for at least 4 to 9 months.
D) If the patient is taking antidepressants as prescribed, the family does not have to worry about suicidal tendencies.

Question 26

Risk factors associated with TIAs include

A) hypertension.
B) smoking.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) carotid artery disease.
E) All of the above

Question 27

Which of the following molecules can easily pass through the blood-brain barrier?

A) Oxygen, water, and glucose
B) Chemicals
C) Drugs
D) None of the above

Question 28

Impulses are carried away from the cell body through the

A) dendrite.
B) myelin sheath.
C) axon.
D) neuron.

Question 29

What is the most important clinical manifestation of cerebrovascular disease (CVD)?

A) Thrombus
B) Transient ischemic attack
C) Cerebrovascular accident
D) None of the above

Question 30

Which structure in the brain controls the autonomic nervous system and regulates endocrine processes?

A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Ventricles
D) Cerebellum

Question 31

Treatment of MS includes which of the following?

A) Requip
B) Interferon injections
C) Mirapex
D) Solu-Medrol

Question 32

A patient with quadriplegia suffers from spinal cord transection in what location?

A) Lumbar region
B) Lower thoracic area
C) Coccygeal area
D) Cervical region

Question 33

Which of the following systems promotes responses geared toward protecting the individual ("fight or flight")?

A) Autonomic nervous system
B) Sympathetic system
C) Parasympathetic system
D) Central nervous system

Question 34

Thrombolytic medication can effectively treat ischemia only if it is given when?

A) As a preventive agent before any symptoms appear
B) Within the first 3 to hours of when the symptoms first started
C) Within the first day
D) Thrombolytic medication is ineffective in treating ischemia.

Question 35

The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses patient responses in what three areas?

A) The ability to open the eyes, move the arms and legs, and verbalize responses
B) The ability to describe pain, move the head, and make sounds
C) The ability to respond to commands, walk a straight line, and swallow fluids
D) The ability to recognize family members, remember the alphabet, and draw a straight line

Question 36

Which of the following is a function of the afferent nerve tract?

A) Carries information from the periphery to the brain
B) Causes specific reaction in organs, glands, and skeletal muscle
C) Keeps the body running smoothly
D) Allows the body to react instantly to both external and internal stimuli

Question 37

Peripheral neuropathy is frequently seen in patients with what other health problem?

A) Parkinson's disease
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Meningitis
D) A secondary brain tumor

Question 38

HIPAA privacy regulations have special stipulations regarding access to which of the following information?

A) Hospital admission for a suicide attempt
B) Psychotherapy notes
C) A history of medication use for depression
D) The diagnosis of schizophrenia

Question 39

Which statement is not true about suicide statistics in the United States?

A) Women are more successful than men at committing suicide.
B) Adolescents are more likely to attempt suicide if a close friend succeeded in committing suicide.
C) Family violence increases suicide attempts.
D) Often, those who attempt suicide engage in substance abuse.

Question 40

Which of the following is the innermost meningeal layer and is highly vascular?

A) Dura mater
B) Epidural space
C) Arachnoid
D) Pia mater

Question 41

The _______________, located deep in the center of the cerebrum near the superior portion of the brainstem, is made up of the thalamus and the hypothalamus.

Question 42

The outer layer of the meninges is called the ______________ ("hard mother"), because it is a tough membrane, similar to a very strong rubber band.

Question 43

If a skull fracture damages arteries, blood may collect between the skull and the dura mater, resulting in a(n) ____________________.

Question 44

The _____________ is the largest and uppermost section of the brain.

Question 45

__________ continues to be the fourth-leading cause of death and the most frequent cause of crippling disease in the United States.

Question 46

Which type of paralysis from spinal cord transection occurs in the upper thoracic or cervical region of the spinal cord?

A) Quadriplegia
B) Paraplegia
C) Hemiplegia
D) None of the above

Question 47

A CVA may be caused by a(n) _____________, which is a thrombus that has broken away from the site of origin and lodged in a blood vessel of the brain.

Question 48

Patients with a grand mal seizure disorder may experience a(n) __________ that warns them of an impending seizure.

Question 49

Which types of seizures are characterized by staring, subtle body movements, and brief lapses of awareness?

A) Simple partial seizures
B) Complex partial seizures
C) Generalized seizures
D) Grand mal seizures

Question 50

CNS tumors can be diagnosed by which of the following means?

A) CT
B) MRI
C) EEG
D) Lumbar puncture
E) All of the above

Question 51

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that causes progressive inflammation and deterioration of the myelin sheath?

A) Parkinson's disease
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D) Bell's palsy

Question 52

If a physician suspects that an infection or inflammation of the CNS is present, what type of test will be ordered?

A) EEG
B) MRI
C) CT
D) Lumbar puncture

Question 53

A patient who shows ___________ is unable to coordinate the complex muscular actions required for movement.

Question 54

The body's systems attempt to maintain a constant internal environment in which all body functions are in balance; this is called ______________.

Question 55

Supportive cells of the nervous system are called ______________ cells.

Question 56

Peripheral nerve function is evaluated by examining which of the following?

A) Cranial nerves
B) Motor function
C) Sensory function
D) All of the above

Question 57

A patient who reports an abnormal feeling of burning or stinging in the legs is diagnosed with ____________.

Question 58

The __________________ closely regulates what substances enter the brain tissue.

Question 59

Faulty development of fetal tissue results in an infant who is born with ____________.

Question 60

A patient with MS who shows worsening of symptoms is experiencing a(n) ________________ of the disease.

Question 61

Lumbar puncture to collect CSF does not necessarily have to be performed as a sterile procedure.

Question 62

A primary symptom of meningitis is a stiff neck.

Question 63

The ANS is responsible for both vasodilation and vasoconstriction.

Question 64

As a medical assistant working with patients with neurologic disorders, you must be able to recognize general symptoms of neurologic problems. Summarize five typical symptoms.

Question 65

A patient with a spinal cord injury that resulted in complete transection of the cord and paraplegia can still walk with assistance.

Question 66

A positive Brudzinski's sign is indicative of meningitis.

Question 67

Bell's palsy is a sudden paralysis of the seventh cranial nerve.

Question 68

A type of neuroglial cell creates the myelin sheath that protects the axon of the neuron.

Question 69

CSF circulates around the brain and spinal cord in the epidural space.

Question 70

The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart rate, constricts the bronchioles, and increases digestive system function.

Question 71

Encephalitis occurs because of a severe bacterial infection.

Question 72

CVAs are the most common cerebrovascular events each year in the United States. Define the three types of strokes that can occur and five typical symptoms that may be seen in an affected patient.

Question 73

Stimuli are carried to the brain from the periphery along the efferent neurologic tract.

Question 74

The physician asks you to research and describe some of the typical symptoms of depression. List five of them.

Question 75

In its embryonic stage, the CNS begins as the neural tube.

Question 76

A concussion is a much more serious injury to the brain than a contusion.

Question 77

Patients who experience TIAs have temporary symptoms, because the tissue ischemia is short-lived.

Question 78

The mother of a 10-year-old boy calls the office, concerned about her son. He fell a little while ago and hit his head. She wants to know what signs she should look for to determine whether he has a head injury. Summarize four immediate signs that might occur. She also wants to know what she should look out for in the next few days. Include in your explanation four possible signs and symptoms that may occur a few days after a head injury. Should the child be seen by the physician?

Question 79

A subdural hematoma causes a rapid increase in intracranial pressure with paralysis and memory loss.

Question 80

Aricept is used to treat Alzheimer's disease.