Deck 7: Immunity

Question 1

Which of the following are the target cells for HIV?

A) Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)
B) B lymphocytes
C) Natural killer cells
D) Macrophages

Answer 1

Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)

Question 2

Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as:

A) opportunistic.
B) prophylactic.
C) abnormal.
D) transient.

Answer 2

opportunistic.

Question 3

HIV infection impairs:

A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
D) neither type of immunity.

Answer 3

both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

Question 4

Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation?

A) Agglutination
B) Double immunodiffusion test
C) Western blot test
D) Sedimentation rate test

Question 5

Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?

A) Active natural
B) Active artificial
C) Passive natural
D) Passive artificial

Question 6

Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?

A) T-helper cells
B) Macrophages
C) Eosinophils
D) Monocytes

Question 7

Humoral immunity is mediated by:

A) natural killer cells.
B) T lymphocytes (T cells).
C) B lymphocytes (B cells).
D) neutrophils.

Question 8

Serious infections frequently occurring in patients with AIDS include:
1) tuberculosis.
2) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
3) influenza.
4) tetanus.

A)1, 2
B)1, 4
C)2, 3
D)3, 4

Question 9

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins or molecules?

A) They are genes on chromosome 6.
B) All members of a family have identical MHCs.
C) They alert the immune system to virus-infected cells.
D) A close match is essential for successful tissue transplants.

Question 10

Neutrophils:

A) are phagocytic cells.
B) produce histamine.
C) produce antibodies.
D) are elevated during an allergic response.

Question 11

Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?

A) A severe, systemic allergic reaction
B) Type III hypersensitivity
C) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
D) Immune complex deposits in many tissues

Question 12

The role of memory cells is to:

A) change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.
B) immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.
C) recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.
D) bind complement to the antibody.

Question 13

An autoimmune disease is:

A) excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
B) an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
C) an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
D) failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.

Question 14

Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?

A) It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.
B) It may result from ingested foods.
C) Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.
D) A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.

Question 15

Incompatible blood transfusions result in:

A) hemolysis of erythrocytes.
B) a type I immune response.
C) deposits in multiple organs.
D) immune deficiency.

Question 16

A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

A) it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.
B) it is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels.
C) it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies.
D) it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.

Question 17

When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:

A) cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
B) immune complex hypersensitivity.
C) type I hypersensitivity.
D) type IV hypersensitivity.

Question 18

Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include:

A) inflammation in multiple organs.
B) lack of a specific diagnostic blood test.
C) acute onset and nonprogressive course.
D) typical skin rash on the chest and back.

Question 19

A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:

A) the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.
B) significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.
C) the individual has AIDS.
D) the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.

Question 20

Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:

A) a chronic allergic condition.
B) development of an immune-deficient state.
C) a deficiency of T lymphocytes.
D) immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.

Question 21

Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?

A) Hypoplasia of the thymus
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Immunosuppressive drugs
D) Atrophy of the lymph nodes

Question 22

In cases of HIV infection, the "window period" refers to the time between:

A) entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations.
B) entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood.
C) entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count.
D) diagnosis of "HIV positive" and diagnosis of "AIDS."

Question 23

Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients?

A) Kaposi's sarcoma
B) Wasting syndrome
C) Lymphoma
D) Polyarthritis

Question 24

Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV-infected mothers?

A) Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth.
B) There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery.
C) Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies.
D) Infants test positive for HIV because of the presence of maternal antibodies.

Question 25

Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE?

A) They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids.
B) They are produced in the red bone marrow.
C) They are attached to mucosal membranes at entry points into the body.
D) IgA binds to allergens.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive?

A) No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range.
B) Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others.
C) Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.
D) Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication.

Question 27

Host-versus-graft disease refers to:

A) hyperacute rejection of tissue.
B) T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.
C) infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.
D) transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system.

Question 28

Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an:

A) allograft.
B) syngraft.
C) isograft.
D) autograft.

Question 29

The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is:

A) HIV encephalopathy.
B) tuberculosis.
C) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
D) Candida infection.

Question 30

Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:

A) activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
B) destroy antigens quickly.
C) increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.
D) cause immediate pain.

Question 31

The term tolerance refers to:

A) surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system.
B) the ability of the immune system to ignore "self" cells.
C) the ability of T and B lymphocytes to work together.
D) the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses.

Question 32

What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS?

A) The virus has been identified in the blood and body fluids.
B) Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood.
C) HIV was found in lymphocytes.
D) Active infection has developed in the patient.

Question 33

Which of the following statements applies to the complement system?

A) It is activated by IgE.
B) It blocks the inflammatory response.
C) It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated.
D) It may destroy antibodies in the circulation.

Question 34

CD4-positive helper T cells function by:

A) direct cytotoxic action.
B) facilitating all immune system activity.
C) producing immunoglobulins.
D) inactivating allergens.

Question 35

Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV?
1) It contains two strands of DNA.
2) It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains.
3) The incubation period is extremely short.
4) It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants.

A)1, 2
B)1, 3
C)2, 4
D)3, 4