Deck 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation

Question 1

Tobacco is a carcinogen that has NOT been linked to the induction of cancer in which one of the following?

A) pancreas
B) lungs
C) mouth
D) pharynx
E) liver

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Any factor that can contribute to the conversion of a healthy cell into a cancerous one is known as

A) a tumor.
B) a carcinogen.
C) a growth factor.
D) regulatory genes.
E) a growth inhibitor.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Cancers that metastasize and invade normal tissues to impede their functions are called

A) benign tumors.
B) keratosis.
C) malignant tumors.
D) in situ cancer.
E) neoplasm.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which one of the following CORRECTLY represents the progression to cancer?

A) in situ, dysplasia, hyperplasia, malignancy
B) dysplasia, in situ tumor, malignancy, hyperplasia
C) hyperplasia, dysplasia, in situ tumor, malignancy
D) dysplasia, hyperplasia, malignancy, in situ tumor
E) malignancy, in situ tumor, hyperplasia, dysplasia

Question 5

All of the following infectious microorganisms are thought to contribute to cancer EXCEPT which one?

A) E. coli
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) human papillomavirus
D) Helicobacter pylori
E) hepatitis B virus

Question 6

A diet high in red meat and saturated fat increases the risk for ________ cancers.

A) colon, rectum, and prostate gland
B) breast and liver
C) brain and lung
D) lung, stomach, and liver
E) colon, breast, and liver

Question 7

All of the following statements describe characteristics of cancer cells EXCEPT which one?

A) Cancer cells may migrate to other locations in the body.
B) Cancer cells often have an enlarged nucleus.
C) Cancer cells lose the ability to control cell division.
D) Cancer cells typically are overdifferentiated.
E) Cancer cells no longer perform their specialized functions prior to becoming cancerous.

Question 8

In which one of the following ways does a proto-oncogene differ from an oncogene?

A) Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that regulate the expression of structural genes; oncogenes code for nucleic acids involved in cell division.
B) Proto-oncogenes control normal cell division; oncogenes contribute to the development of cancer.
C) When oncogenes become damaged, they become proto-oncogenes.
D) Oncogenes activate tumor suppressor genes; proto-oncogenes repress tumor suppressor genes.
E) Proto-oncogenes cause cells to self-destruct when damaged; oncogenes cause damaged cells to repair themselves.

Question 9

Oncogenes are derived from

A) malignant tumors.
B) proto-oncogenes.
C) mutated keratotic cells.
D) healthy tumor suppressor genes.
E) benign tumors.

Question 10

Tumor suppressor genes function to

A) prevent gene expression of oncogenes.
B) prevent release of growth factors.
C) slow down unchecked cell growth, differentiation, division, or adhesion.
D) produce proto-oncogenes.
E) stimulate metastasis.

Question 11

Damage to ________ greatly reduces a cell's ability to repair DNA during DNA replication.

A) mutator genes
B) proto-oncogenes
C) repair genes
D) structural genes
E) somatic genes

Question 12

When a cancer remains in one location, it is referred to as

A) benign.
B) dysplasia.
C) in situ cancer.
D) hyperplasia.
E) metastasis.

Question 13

Which one of the following types of cancer is preventable by a vaccine?

A) lung cancer
B) cervical cancer
C) breast cancer
D) colon cancer
E) skin cancer

Question 14

Free radicals produced during biochemical reactions can serve as carcinogens if they are NOT neutralized by

A) mutator genes.
B) growth factors.
C) antioxidants.
D) repair enzymes.
E) proto-oncogenes.

Question 15

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommended that women who are not at risk for breast cancer wait to have yearly screening mammograms until age 50, as opposed to the previous recommendation of age 40, because

A) breast tissue is more sensitive to radiation damage before menopause than after.
B) the cost of the screening is not covered by insurance until after a woman reaches menopause.
C) most forms of breast cancer do not develop until later in life.
D) the method of screening is more accurate in older women than younger.
E) delaying the screening ensures that younger, more at-risk women, are able to schedule the preventive tests.

Question 16

The dietary carcinogen aflatoxin can be found in

A) fresh fruits.
B) red meats.
C) salt.
D) alcohol.
E) raw peanut butter.

Question 17

The chance that an individual in the United States will experience some form of cancer in his or her lifetime is

A) 1 in 3.
B) 1 in 10.
C) 1 in 25.
D) 1 in 1,000.
E) 1 in 10,000.

Question 18

Which one of the following is shown in the figure above?

A) in situ cancer
B) death of a neoplasm
C) metastatic tumor
D) benign tumor
E) precancerous mass of cells

Question 19

The normal form of the p53 gene

A) is a type of proto-oncogene.
B) has been linked to the development of colon cancer.
C) codes for a protein that prevents damaged cells from dividing.
D) is a type of oncogene that causes skin cancer.
E) codes for proteins that stimulate cell growth and adhesion.

Question 20

A mass of rapidly dividing cells that have potentially lost the ability to regulate cell division is called a(n)

A) neoplasm.
B) angiogenesis.
C) malignancy.
D) metastasis.
E) keratosis.

Question 21

Development of cancer in cells within lymph nodes is called

A) in situ.
B) lymphoma.
C) leukemia.
D) keratosis.
E) cervical.

Question 22

Not only does smoking cause lung cancer, it also quadruples the risk of which one of the following types of cancer?

A) stomach
B) prostate
C) bladder
D) colon
E) brain

Question 23

Which one of the following types of cancer kills the highest percentage of people diagnosed with the condition?

A) lung
B) breast
C) prostate
D) skin
E) colon

Question 24

Which one of the following diagnostic imaging techniques does NOT expose the patient to additional radiation?

A) X- rays and ultrasounds
B) ultrasounds and PET scans
C) ultrasounds and MRI
D) PET scans and MRI
E) PET scans and X-rays

Question 25

Which one of the following carcinogens accounts for 30% of all cancer deaths?

A) environmental chemicals (e.g., asbestos, pesticides, soot, coal tar)
B) tobacco smoke
C) ultraviolet light
D) ionizing radiation (X rays)
E) radon gas

Question 26

Common side effects associated with chemotherapy are due to

A) fevers induced by the chemicals.
B) death of cancer cells and their subsequent removal from the body.
C) change in blood pH caused by the chemicals.
D) death of normal cells caused by the chemicals.
E) destruction of RNA in most normal cells.

Question 27

The use of laser light to trigger toxic reactions specific to cancer cells is referred to as

A) angiogenesis.
B) molecular annihilation.
C) photosynthesis.
D) fluorescent microscopy.
E) photodynamic therapy.

Question 28

All of the following are risks associated with the development of colon cancer EXCEPT which one?

A) low-fiber diet
B) obesity
C) family history
D) consumption of vitamins A, C, and E
E) smoking

Question 29

If angiogenesis were not to occur, a tumor would reach the size of a ________ and stop growing.

A) period on a typewritten page (.)
B) baseball
C) grapefruit
D) pea
E) basketball

Question 30

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding photodynamic therapy?

A) It involves the use of light-sensitive drugs to target a cancer.
B) It uses magnets to attract beads coated with a chemotherapeutic drug to a cancer.
C) It is used for the treatment of cancers of the breast and ovary.
D) It inhibits angiogenesis.
E) It involves the use of antibodies to deliver treatments to a cancer.

Question 31

One method for detecting tumors in body tissue involves the use of radioactive materials to create three-dimensional images showing metabolic activity of a specific tissue. This technique is referred to as

A) magnetic resonance imaging.
B) positron-emission tomography.
C) mammography.
D) electrophoresis.
E) photodynamic therapy.

Question 32

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding chemotherapy?

A) This technique is used in the diagnosis of cancer.
B) This procedure kills cancer cells and normal cells that divide rapidly.
C) This is the selected technique in the treatment of cancer because there are no side effects.
D) This is a procedure used to genetically engineer an individual so cancer will not develop.
E) Most chemicals used in this procedure affect only one organ of the body.

Question 33

The process by which growing tumors stimulate the growth of new blood vessels is called

A) metastasis.
B) angiogenesis.
C) keratosis.
D) hyperplasia.
E) dysplasia.

Question 34

Consider an individual undergoing cancer chemotherapy, taking a drug that slows or stops cell division. Which one of the following is a likely side effect of such chemotherapy?

A) improved hair growth
B) anemia
C) weight gain
D) headaches
E) fluid retention

Question 35

A mutation in which one of the following genes can lead to breast cancer?

A) BT05
B) HeLa
C) BRCA1
D) BCG
E) BCG2

Question 36

In which one of the following ways are antiangiogenic drugs used in the treatment of cancer?

A) These drugs stop the replication of DNA, so cancer cells cannot reproduce.
B) These drugs stop the growth of blood vessels into the tumor, so the cells "starve" to death.
C) These drugs stop metastasis.
D) These drugs stimulate the immune system.
E) These drugs stimulate the production of free radicals, which kill cancer cells.

Question 37

The development of a cancerous condition in immature white blood cells located in bone marrow is called

A) leukemia.
B) hyperplasia.
C) lymphoma.
D) hypoplasia.
E) dysplasia.

Question 38

Using the ABCD rule for diagnosing a melanoma associated with the skin, the "D" refers to

A) darkness of the spot or region of the skin, usually varying in intensity of the color black.
B) degree of irregularity of the spot from a circle.
C) diameter of the spot.
D) density or thickness of the melanoma.
E) "damage," or the extent that the skin cells have lost normal function.

Question 39

For women with a mutated BRCA gene, the risk of breast cancer is about 60%. However, detection of the mutated gene can occur before cancer ever develops by

A) testing of a blood sample.
B) screening mammography.
C) taking a biopsy of breast tissue.
D) a PET scan.
E) urinalysis.

Question 40

The use of cancer-specific antigens to generate antibodies that target cancer cells is a process known as

A) immunotherapy.
B) radiation therapy.
C) angiogenesis.
D) chemotherapy.
E) antigenic loading.

Question 41

Proto-oncogenes are genes that promote the development of tumors.

Question 42

Match each of the following types of tumors to its description. Answers may be used more than once.

A) benign tumor
B) in situ tumor
C) malignant tumor
cell mass is localized and surrounded by a connective tissue layer; cell structure is slightly abnormal

Question 43

MRI is a type of imaging technique that can detect tumor consistency.

Question 44

Dysplasia occurs when an abnormal structural change occurs in a cell.

Question 45

Diet, including what is and what is not consumed, is believed to play a major role in determining whether or not an individual develops cancer.

Question 46

Damage to mutator genes increase the likelihood of cancers because the gene products of the normal genes repair DNA.

Question 47

When hyperplasia develops, signaling a loss of control of cell division, it always results in cancer.

Question 48

The tumor shown in the figure above is most likely malignant.

Question 49

Unlike traditional vaccines, cancer vaccines are administered to an individual after he or she has developed the illness.

Question 50

In addition to killing cancer cells, radiation therapy results in the death of normal cells. However, unlike cancer cells, normal cells recover from exposure to the radiation more readily.

Question 51

Telomerase is an enzyme characteristic of normal cells that is active in DNA repair; most cancer cells have been found to lack telomerase.

Question 52

Many viral and bacterial infections are believed to increase the risk of cancer. Match the following viruses and bacteria to the type of cancer with which they are associated.

A) HIV
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) human papillomavirus
E) hepatitis B virus
cancer of the stomach

Question 53

Match each of the following types of tumors to its description. Answers may be used more than once.

A) benign tumor
B) in situ tumor
C) malignant tumor
cells of the tumor invade normal tissues and metastasize

Question 54

Match each of the following types of tumors to its description. Answers may be used more than once.

A) benign tumor
B) in situ tumor
C) malignant tumor
cells do not move to other locations in body; remain in initial tissues

Question 55

Tumor suppressor genes function to increase the activity of cells during times of stress or when conditions do not favor cell division.

Question 56

A mutation in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 is the most common cause of breast cancer.

Question 57

Match each of the following types of tumors to its description. Answers may be used more than once.

A) benign tumor
B) in situ tumor
C) malignant tumor
cells of the tumor resemble those of surrounding normal tissue

Question 58

In order for a cancer to develop, cells must be capable of breaking away from neighboring cells, and they must ignore growth-inhibitory signals from other cells, resulting in uncontrolled growth and cell division.

Question 59

Match each of the following types of tumors to its description. Answers may be used more than once.

A) benign tumor
B) in situ tumor
C) malignant tumor
condition that continues to spread throughout the body, causing damage to several different organ systems; death often results

Question 60

A malignant tumor differs from an in situ tumor in that the malignant tumor has invaded the surrounding tissue and compromised the function of that tissue, whereas an in situ tumor has not compromised the surrounding tissue or spread from its original location.

Question 61

The process by which cells of a tumor invade normal tissue and travel to other parts of the body is called ________.

Question 62

The following is a list of carcinogens. Match each to the type of cancer with which it is associated.

A) smoke
B) ultraviolet light
C) HTLV-1 virus
D) human papilloma virus
E) red meat and saturated animal fat
cervical cancer

Question 63

Many viral and bacterial infections are believed to increase the risk of cancer. Match the following viruses and bacteria to the type of cancer with which they are associated.

A) HIV
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) human papillomavirus
E) hepatitis B virus
cancer of the liver

Question 64

The following is a list of carcinogens. Match each to the type of cancer with which it is associated.

A) smoke
B) ultraviolet light
C) HTLV-1 virus
D) human papilloma virus
E) red meat and saturated animal fat
lung cancer

Question 65

Vitamins A, C, and E are known as ________ because they neutralize free radicals, therefore reducing the risk of cancer.

Question 66

The detection of an enzyme called ________ in a cell is an indicator that the cell may be cancerous because it is rarely present in normal cells.

Question 67

The following is a list of carcinogens. Match each to the type of cancer with which it is associated.

A) smoke
B) ultraviolet light
C) HTLV-1 virus
D) human papilloma virus
E) red meat and saturated animal fat
skin cancer

Question 68

The diagnosis of cancer may involve the use of ________, which employs short bursts of a powerful magnetic field to produce a cross-sectional image of tissues in the body.

Question 69

The following is a list of carcinogens. Match each to the type of cancer with which it is associated.

A) smoke
B) ultraviolet light
C) HTLV-1 virus
D) human papilloma virus
E) red meat and saturated animal fat
leukemia

Question 70

Many viral and bacterial infections are believed to increase the risk of cancer. Match the following viruses and bacteria to the type of cancer with which they are associated.

A) HIV
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) human papillomavirus
E) hepatitis B virus
cancer of the cervix or penis

Question 71

The following is a list of carcinogens. Match each to the type of cancer with which it is associated.

A) smoke
B) ultraviolet light
C) HTLV-1 virus
D) human papilloma virus
E) red meat and saturated animal fat
colon cancer

Question 72

Mutated forms of the ________ gene (a tumor suppressor gene) are associated with cancers of the cervix, colon, skin, bladder, and breast.

Question 73

Antiangiogenic drugs are designed to prevent or slow the growth of ________ into tumors.

Question 74

Many viral and bacterial infections are believed to increase the risk of cancer. Match the following viruses and bacteria to the type of cancer with which they are associated.

A) HIV
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) human papillomavirus
E) hepatitis B virus
Hodgkin's disease

Question 75

Cells undergoing hyperplasia eventually develop into a mass called a(n) ________.

Question 76

Many viral and bacterial infections are believed to increase the risk of cancer. Match the following viruses and bacteria to the type of cancer with which they are associated.

A) HIV
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) human papillomavirus
E) hepatitis B virus
Kaposi's sarcoma

Question 77

The potential damaging effects of free radicals to DNA can be averted by ________.

Question 78

If an entire tumor remains localized, it is said to be a(n) ________ cancer.

Question 79

If a proto-oncogene becomes damaged or undergoes a mutation, it may become a(n) ________ if it contributes to the development of cancer.

Question 80

Cells that have developed an enlarged nucleus and lost some specialized structures and functions, but is not yet cancer, is called ________.