Deck 22: Immune System and the Bodys Defense

Question 1

Cytokines are agents that affect neighboring cells without triggering systemic effects.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

When a chemical messenger has a short half-life, it means that

A) it will not have an extremely prolonged effect on target cells.
B) it will not be eliminated quickly from the blood.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Consuming meat that has been infected with a prion can lead to the disease

A) trichomoniasis.
B) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
C) clostridium tetani.
D) histoplasmosis.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Dendritic cells of the skin are derived from

A) macrophages.
B) B-lymphocytes.
C) T-lymphocytes.
D) monocytes.
E) neutrophils.

Question 5

Interferons are one of the classes of

A) interleukins.
B) cytokines.
C) colony-stimulating factors.
D) tumor necrosis factors.

Question 6

Fungi are

A) eukaryotic cells with a cell wall.
B) prokaryotic cells.
C) multicellular parasites that reside within a host.
D) protozoans lacking a cell wall.
E) viruses that are fragments of infectious proteins.

Question 7

Which class of chemical messenger facilitates white blood cell formation in bone marrow?

A) Interleukins
B) Colony-stimulating factors
C) Tumor necrosis factors
D) Interferons

Question 8

A delayed response to a specific antigen is provided by

A) adaptive immunity.
B) innate immunity.
C) inflammation.

Question 9

A virus is ______ than a bacterial cell, and a virus is composed of ________.

A) larger; nucleic acid within a protein capsid.
B) larger; a eukaryotic cell with a cell wall.
C) smaller; nucleic acid within a protein capsid.
D) smaller; a eukaryotic cell with a cell wall.

Question 10

Cytokines have a ________ half-life and exert influence on ________.

A) long; immune cells only
B) long; immune and non-immune cells
C) short; immune cells only
D) short; immune and non-immune cells

Question 11

The microglia of the brain are macrophages.

Question 12

Which cells resemble basophils and are found in connective tissue, close to small blood vessels?

A) Dendritic cells
B) Mast cells
C) NK cells
D) Alveolar macrophages
E) Cytokines

Question 13

In terms of their chemical structure, cytokines are ________; their function is to serve as ________.

A) proteins; chemical messengers
B) proteins; receptors
C) steroids; chemical messengers.
D) steroids; receptors.

Question 14

Small fragments of infectious proteins that cause disease in nervous tissue are known as ________.

Question 15

Most bacterial species are pathogenic.

Question 16

Nonspecific immunity is another name for

A) adaptive immunity.
B) innate immunity.
C) cell-mediated immunity.
D) acquired immunity.

Question 17

Malaria is a disease caused by a

A) multicellular parasite.
B) protozoan.
C) fungus.
D) virus.
E) bacterium.

Question 18

Eosinophils and lymphocytes are both types of leukocytes.

Question 19

Protozoans are obligate intracellular parasites.

Question 20

"Mad cow disease" (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) is caused by a

A) fungus.
B) protozoan.
C) prion.
D) virus.
E) bacterium.

Question 21

In addition to creating a physical barrier to pathogen entry, mucus contains antimicrobial substances such as IgA.

Question 22

One way in which complement defends against bacteria is by binding to it and facilitating phagocytosis. This process is known as ________.

Question 23

A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that

A) triggers phagocytosis of a target cell by a nearby macrophage or neutrophil.
B) forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis.
C) links a pathogen to a red blood cell so that it is carried to the liver or spleen.
D) stimulates basophils to attack a multicellular parasite in the body.

Question 24

If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of

A) failed external adaptive immunity, but successful innate immunity.
B) failed innate immunity, but successful adaptive immunity.
C) failed external innate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity.
D) failed external immunity, but successful internal acquired immunity.

Question 25

Often a virus-infected cell will release ________ to prevent spread of the infection.

A) histamine
B) complement
C) interferon
D) perforin
E) serotonin

Question 26

Proteins known as ________ are produced by a variety of cells; they increase capillary permeability, increase CAM production in the endothelium, and stimulate pain receptors.

Question 27

Acquired immunity is a system in which lymphocytes respond to particular antigens they encounter during a lifetime. Another name for acquired immunity is ________ immunity.

Question 28

Chemotaxis is the process by which

A) CAMs on leukocytes adhere to CAMs on endothelial cells of capillaries within injured tissues.
B) cells migrate along chemical gradients.
C) cells exit the blood by squeezing out between cells in the blood vessel wall.
D) chemical messengers are secreted that stimulate the sensation of pain that accompanies inflammation.

Question 29

Which is not an action of interferon?

A) It stimulates macrophages and NK cells to destroy virus-infected cells.
B) It triggers synthesis of enzymes that destroy viral nucleic acids.
C) It signals the immune system that the secreting cell is part of the body and so should not be attacked.
D) It binds to receptors of neighboring cells preventing them from being infected.

Question 30

The inflammatory response includes a decrease in the permeability of capillaries to prevent excessive blood loss after injury.

Question 31

Which of the following lists the body's first, second, and third lines of defense in order?

A) Adaptive immunity, external innate immunity, internal immunity
B) External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity
C) External innate immunity, adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity
D) External adaptive immunity, internal adaptive immunity, innate immunity
E) Innate immunity, internal adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity

Question 32

"Complement" refers to a group of

A) white blood cells.
B) antibodies.
C) plasma proteins.
D) molecules on the surface of pathogenic microbes.

Question 33

Which type of cell is the most effective to attack multicellular parasites such as tapeworms?

A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Macrophages
D) Neutrophils

Question 34

Exudate formation delivers substances to eliminate injurious agents, and the resulting increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure leads to increased fluid uptake by lymphatic capillaries.

Question 35

Which type of cell attacks a variety of unwanted cells and causes those cells to undergo apoptosis?

A) Natural killer cells
B) Basophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils
E) Macrophages

Question 36

Complement facilitates inflammation by activating basophils and mast cells and by attracting macrophages and neutrophils.

Question 37

In the classical pathway of complement activation,

A) complement is activated within liver cells and released into the blood.
B) complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance.
C) complement binds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall.
D) complement inhibits inflammation and binds to opsonins.

Question 38

Inflammation is a(n)

A) antigen-specific process that occurs in avascular tissue.
B) antigen-specific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.
C) nonspecific process that occurs in avascular tissue.
D) nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.

Question 39

Exudate is

A) blood that escapes capillaries, passes beyond the skin and leaves the body.
B) increased perfusion of capillary beds within the region of an injury.
C) lymph that flows away from the heart and toward the site of an injury.
D) fluid that leaves capillaries to "wash" the interstitial space of an injured tissue.
E) clotting proteins that wall off microbes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.

Question 40

Defensins and lysosomes are both part of ________ immunity and function as ________.

A) adaptive; physical barriers to pathogen entry
B) adaptive; attackers of pathogenic cells
C) innate; physical barriers to pathogen entry
D) innate; attackers of pathogenic cells

Question 41

Metals and plastics of artificial implants generally have high immunogenicity.

Question 42

Dendritic cells serve as antigen-presenting cells.

Question 43

Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A) Heat
B) Redness
C) Loss of function
D) Numbness
E) Swelling

Question 44

Pyrogens act on the ________ of the brain where they cause release of ________.

A) hippocampus; PGE₂
B) hippocampus; exudate
C) hypothalamus; PGE₂
D) hypothalamus; exudate

Question 45

Poison ivy contains a toxin that acts as a hapten by

A) raising the body's sensitivity to a wide variety of chemicals such as penicillin.
B) cutting plasma protein antibodies in half.
C) preventing effective immune responses by blocking release of bradykinin.
D) combining with a body protein and then triggering an immune response.

Question 46

Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenicity?

A) One that is small, simple, familiar, and abundant
B) One that is small but complex and rare
C) One that is large, complex, foreign, and abundant
D) One that is large but simple and familiar

Question 47

When part of the immune system recognizes and binds to a foreign molecule, the part of the molecule to which binding occurs is called the epitope or ________ determinant.

Question 48

Antigen-presenting cells are ________, and they display antigens to both ________ and ________.

A) immune cells; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes
B) immune cells; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
C) any nucleated cell; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes
D) any anucleate cell; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
E) any blood cell; helper B-lymphocytes; cytotoxic B-lymphocytes

Question 49

A fever ________ reproduction of bacteria and ________ CAMs on the endothelium of capillaries of lymph nodes.

A) stimulates; increases
B) stimulates; decreases
C) inhibits; increases
D) inhibits; decreases

Question 50

Antigen presentation involves the display of an antigen

A) inside the cytoplasm of a B-lymphocyte.
B) on the surface of a cell so that a B-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.
C) inside the cytoplasm of a T-lymphocyte.
D) on the surface of a cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.

Question 51

Interleukin 1 and interferons act as

A) defervescents and trigger an elevation of body temperature.
B) defervescents and trigger a decrease of body temperature.
C) pyrogens and trigger an elevation of body temperature.
D) pyrogens and trigger a decrease of body temperature.

Question 52

Antigens are

A) something made by a white blood cell to destroy a pathogen.
B) something that an antibody or T-lymphocyte binds to.
C) disorders involving overactive immune systems.
D) membrane receptors on B-lymphocytes.

Question 53

Helper T-lymphocytes are also known as

A) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
B) CD8⁺ cells.
C) CD4⁺ cells.
D) T8 cells.
E) memory T-lymphocytes.

Question 54

Sustained fevers that are 1°C above normal core body temperature usually lead to irreversible brain damage.

Question 55

High fevers can lead to protein denaturation and raise the likelihood of seizures.

Question 56

Which type of lymphocyte has coreceptors that assist in the interaction of the lymphocyte with a cell presenting antigen?

A) T-lymphocyte
B) B-lymphocyte

Question 57

Erythrocytes are antigen-presenting cells.

Question 58

B-lymphocytes cannot bind directly with an antigen, and so require presentation by another type of cell.

Question 59

Compared to most interstitial fluid in the body, the interstitial fluid of an inflamed area would have a lower osmolarity and a lower concentration of proteins.

Question 60

Inflamed tissue feels warm due to

A) increased blood flow and increased metabolic activity.
B) the margination of white blood cells.
C) chemotaxis and defervescence.
D) activation of complement by binding of C-reactive protein to bacterial carbohydrates.

Question 61

Negative selection is the process by which cells learn self-tolerance.

Question 62

MHC class I molecules on a cell allow it to interact with

A) natural killer cells.
B) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
C) helper T-lymphocytes.
D) CD8⁺ B-lymphocytes.

Question 63

When they leave the red marrow, pre-T-lymphocytes have

A) only the CD4 protein.
B) only the CD8 protein.
C) both the CD4 and CD8 proteins.
D) neither the CD4 nor CD8 protein.
E) either the CD4 or CD8 protein.

Question 64

Lymphocytes that are able to bind and respond to antigen are said to be ________.

Question 65

The first signal during helper T-lymphocyte activation involves

A) BCR of the helper T-cell binding with free antigen and engulfing it.
B) CD8 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class III of the antigen-presenting cell.
C) CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class I part of the antigen fragment.
D) CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.

Question 66

The site of infection is the location at which lymphocytes

A) are formed.
B) provide an effector response.
C) are activated.
D) become able to recognize one specific foreign antigen.

Question 67

MHC class II molecules are loaded with exogenous antigen after the antigen has been digested into fragments within a phagolysosome.

Question 68

Which class of major histocompatibility molecules is specific to antigen-presenting cells?

A) MHC class I
B) MHC class II

Question 69

Upon activation, a T-lymphocyte

A) ceases dividing and becomes a plasma cell.
B) ceases dividing and becomes a memory cytotoxic helper cell.
C) proliferates to form clones and memory cells.
D) proliferates to form B cells and plasma cells.

Question 70

The second signal during cytotoxic T-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation of the cell by interleukin 2 released by helper T-lymphocytes.

Question 71

In positive selection of T-lymphocytes, those cells that

A) bind self-antigens are eliminated.
B) can bind MHC survive.
C) bind to self-antigens survive.
D) bind to MHC class II are eliminated.

Question 72

The second signal during B-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation from

A) IL-2 released by cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
B) IL-4 released by helper T-lymphocytes.
C) bradykinin released by antigen-presenting cells.
D) antibodies released by antigens.

Question 73

Some biologists have criticized the traditional analogy of the immune system to an army, arguing that it is unnecessarily militaristic. They have proposed other analogies that compare immune functioning to gardening or housekeeping. Develop one of these or create your own analogy for immune function and describe the roles of helper T-lymphocytes, cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and B-lymphocytes using language that fits your metaphor.

Question 74

Most activated B-lymphocytes differentiate into

A) memory helper T-lymphocytes.
B) macrophages.
C) plasma cells.
D) antigen-presenting cells.

Question 75

MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either "self" or "nonself"; in either case, the fragment becomes bound to the molecule while

A) in the Golgi apparatus.
B) in the cytosol.
C) in a secretory vesicle.
D) in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 76

Helper T-lymphocyte activation involves MHC class I, whereas cytotoxic T-lymphocyte activation involves MHC class II.

Question 77

MHC class I molecules are

A) glycolipid synthesized on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
B) glycoproteins synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C) small peptides synthesized on free ribosomes.
D) phospholipids synthesized in secretory vesicles.

Question 78

If T-lymphocytes that failed the negative selection test were not destroyed, the immune system would likely

A) cause autoimmune disorders.
B) exhibit very delayed activity.
C) be unable to recognize a particular class of pathogen.
D) exhibit more negative membrane potentials.

Question 79

As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus, they are

A) naive and not yet competent.
B) naive and immunocompetent.
C) activated but not yet competent.
D) activated and immunocompetent.

Question 80

Activation of lymphocytes occurs in

A) primary lymphatic structures.
B) secondary lymphatic structures.
C) tertiary lymphatic structures.
D) effectors such as muscles and glands.