Deck 20: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli

Question 1

How is pneumonic plague transmitted?

A) bite of a flea carrying Yersinia pestis
B) inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with Yersinia pestis
C) bite of a tick carrying Yersinia pestis
D) contact with the blood of a person infected with Yersinia pestis
E) fomite contact

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding Coxiella is TRUE?

A) It is a gastrointestinal pathogen.
B) It prefers a neutral environment.
C) It is an obligate intracellular parasite that escapes phagolysosomes to grow in the cytoplasm.
D) It produces an infective body similar in structure and function to Gram- positive endospores.
E) It is communicable from person to person.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague?

A) Salmonella enterica
B) Yersinia enterocolitica
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Salmonella flexneri
E) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non- nosocomial urinary tract infections?

A) Enterobacter
B) Escherichia coli
C) Serratia marcescens
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Proteus mirabilis

Question 5

Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A) the pelvic organs
B) the uterus
C) the Fallopian tubes
D) the vagina
E) the cervix

Question 6

This growth pattern is characteristic of which organism?

A) Klebsiella
B) Shigella
C) Salmonella
D) Pseudomonas
E) Proteus

Question 7

Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth?

A) Yersinia
B) Haemophilus
C) Shigella
D) Bordetella
E) Salmonella

Question 8

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of human body lice?

A) bubonic plague
B) brucellosis
C) Pontiac fever
D) tularemia
E) trench fever

Question 9

Legionnaires' disease is diagnosed by

A) the clinical symptoms in infected patients.
B) the microbe's characteristic growth on common laboratory media.
C) the microbe's staining properties under the microscope.
D) fluorescent antibody or other serological diagnostic procedures.
E) the microbe's sensitivity to all antimicrobial agents.

Question 10

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination?

A) salmonellosis
B) gonorrhea
C) cat scratch disease
D) typhoid fever
E) chancroid

Question 11

Which of the following bacteria can metabolize a large range of organic compounds and is a frequent nosocomial pathogen of cystic fibrosis patients? (There is no abnormal coloration of the mucus in these patients.)

A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Burkholderia
D) Coxiella burnetii
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 12

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE?

A) Up to 40% of the population are carriers.
B) Humans are the only natural carriers.
C) It often causes meningitis.
D) Transmission is via respiratory droplets.
E) There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains.

Question 13

Bordetella pertussis causes disease by

A) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.
B) the development of pneumonia.
C) suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining.
D) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.
E) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx.

Question 14

Cat scratch disease is caused by

A) Bartonella peliosis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) Bartonella henselae.
D) Bartonella angiomatosis.
E) Bartonella bacilliformis.

Question 15

A lesion called _ is characteristic of infection with Haemophilus ducreyi.

A) a chancroid or soft chancre
B) an eschar
C) petechiae
D) ophthalmia neonatorum
E) a bubo

Question 16

What is the characteristic lesion of Yersinia pestis?

A) oozing abscesses in the intestinal wall
B) a bubo
C) a soft chancre
D) petechiae
E) a chancroid

Question 17

What virulence factor(s) do all proteobacteria share?

A) lipid A
B) fimbriae
C) proteases that destroy IgA antibodies
D) a glycocalyx
E) both fimbriae and a glycocalyx

Question 18

What metabolic characteristic distinguishes Enterobacteriaceae from Pasteurellaceae?

A) Enterobacteriaceae are facultative anaerobes.
B) Pasteurellaceae are oxidase positive.
C) Pasteurellaceae are facultative anaerobes.
D) Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive.
E) Enterobacteriaceae ferment lactose.

Question 19

Resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide range of antibacterial agents is partly due to its

A) ability to utilize a wide range of organic and nitrogen sources.
B) use of the Entner- Doudoroff pathway as its major means of catabolizing glucose.
C) ability to form biofilms.
D) lack of special requirements for growth.
E) production of exoenzyme S.

Question 20

Serratia is a coliform that

A) does not grow in hospital supplies such as saline and other salt solutions.
B) is nonmotile.
C) is totally benign in humans.
D) is easy to treat because it is sensitive to most antibiotics.
E) produces red pigment when grown at room temperature.

Question 21

The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of

A) its invasion into the central nervous system.
B) the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis.
C) its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals.
D) the release of the lipid A component of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) into the tissues, triggering serious symptoms.
E) its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in close contact.

Question 22

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED?

A) noncoliform opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae; Proteus, Morganella
B) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters
C) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic pathogens
D) noncoliform Enterobacteriaceae; non- lactose- fermenters
E) nonpathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella

Question 23

Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by

A) the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms in bloody diarrhea.
B) the presence of bloody diarrhea.
C) abdominal cramps and fever.
D) the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms.
E) the lack of fever.

Question 24

How do Prevotella differ from Bacteroides?

A) Prevotella possess antiphagocytic capsules.
B) Prevotella are found in the intestinal, respiratory, and urinary tracts.
C) Prevotella are pleomorphic bacilli.
D) Prevotella are anaerobic.
E) Prevotella are sensitive to bile.

Question 25

Undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in can progress to

A) trench fever.
B) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
C) Q fever.
D) meningococcal meningitis.
E) bubonic plague.

Question 26

A lung specimen from a pneumonia patient contains Gram- negative bacilli. Laboratory test results on the bacteria show they are nonmotile coliforms with a thick capsule. Which pathogen is the likely cause of the pneumonia?

A) Hafnia
B) Serratia
C) Klebsiella
D) Escherichia coli
E) Enterobacter

Question 27

Which of the following toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis results in the accumulation of excess mucus in the trachea?

A) adenylate cyclase toxin
B) tracheal cytotoxin
C) pertussis toxin
D) both adenylate cyclase toxin and tracheal cytotoxin
E) both pertussis toxin and adenylate cyclase toxin

Question 28

Which of the following statements concerning Pasteurella is FALSE?

A) Humans are typically infected via animal bites.
B) It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones.
C) It is nonmotile.
D) It is fastidious in its growth and must be cultivated on blood or chocolate agar.
E) It is oxidase positive.

Question 29

Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms?

A) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B) hemorrhaging
C) fever
D) fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
E) fever and hemorrhaging

Question 30

The zoonotic infection _ in humans is characterized by fluctuating fever and chills, sweating, myalgia, and headache.

A) trench fever
B) brucellosis
C) rabbit fever
D) Q fever
E) bartonellosis

Question 31

Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis?

A) the presence of Gram- negative diplococci in phagocytes of the central nervous system
B) the lack of lipooligosaccharide
C) the presence of lipid A
D) its inability to ferment maltose
E) the lack of fimbriae

Question 32

Urinary tract infections with _ are frequently complicated by the formation of kidney stones.

A) Salmonella species
B) Escherichia coli
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Bacteroides species
E) Proteus mirabilis

Question 33

Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE?

A) It causes disease in humans only.
B) Infected women are often asymptomatic.
C) The gonococci secrete a protease that destroys secretory IgA.
D) The gonococci stick to epithelial cells via fimbriae and capsules.
E) The gonococci induce lasting immunity.

Question 34

Infection with usually produces acute upper respiratory disease but may cause meningitis in infants 3- 18 months old.

A) Coxiella burnetii
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Hafnia species
E) Francisella tularensis

Question 35

Inhalation of dried bodily fluids of infected animals may result in

A) brucellosis.
B) Q fever.
C) tularemia.
D) both tularemia and brucellosis.
E) tularemia, brucellosis, and Q fever.

Question 36

What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections?

A) tetracycline
B) metronidazole
C) bacitracin
D) cephalosporin
E) erythromycin

Question 37

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by

A) Bacteroides fragilis.
B) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
C) Enterobacter.
D) Serratia marcescens.
E) Proteus mirabilis.

Question 38

Several cases of nonbloody diarrhea with nausea, fever, and abdominal pain have occurred among a number of people who ate at the same restaurant. Public health officers find a food sample containing motile noncoliform, Gram- negative bacteria capable of metabolizing glucose. The "food poisoning" resulted from contamination with

A) Shigella.
B) Yersinia.
C) Citrobacter.
D) Salmonella.
E) Escherichia coli.

Question 39

A young woman has a pelvic infection. A specimen contains bacilli that are bile salt tolerant, as shown by black growth on a bile- esculin agar plate. Her infection is likely caused by

A) Bartonella henselae.
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) Bacteroides fragilis.
D) Haemophilus ducreyi.
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 40

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by

A) both motility and the ability to ferment lactose.
B) motility.
C) the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.
D) both motility and the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.
E) the ability to ferment lactose.

Question 41

The pleomorphic bacterium (Coxiella/Legionella/Francisella) is an intracellular parasite that can lead to respiratory disease when inhaled in aerosols from freshwater sources.

Question 42

Of the three disease caused by Yersinia pestis, only (bubonic/black/pneumonic) plague is communicable between humans.

Question 43

Strains of the same species of enteric bacteria are identified by their (H/K/O) antigens, components of the outer membrane.

Question 44

The true pathogen (Salmonella/Shigella/Yersinia) is a noncoliform, nonmotile,
oxidase- negative member of the Enterobacteriaceae that does not produce hydrogen sulfide.

Question 45

The zoonosis (brucellosis/bartonellosis/tularemia) can be acquired by humans in a variety of ways, including insect bites and ingestion of infected animals.

Question 46

People can reduce the chances of contracting rabbit fever by avoiding rabbits, muskrats, and (fleas/lice/ticks).

Question 47

Because of the existence of (acute/symptomatic/asymptomatic) carriers, the eradication of meningococcal disease is unlikely.

Question 48

What is the causative pathogen of Q fever?

A) Acinetobacter
B) Bacteroides fragilis
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Prevotella
E) Coxiella burnetii

Question 49

A cystic fibrosis patient develops a severe respiratory infection that resists treatment with standard antibiotics. A specimen from the lungs is greenish in color and contains aerobic motile Gram- negative bacilli. The patient is probably infected with

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Bordetella pertussis.
C) Serratia marcescens.
D) Burkholderia cepacia.
E) Klebsiella pneumoniae.

Question 50

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is

A) only symptomatic in advanced stages of disease.
B) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis.
C) an acute painful infection with pus discharge.
D) usually a bladder infection.
E) usually asymptomatic.

Question 51

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen because it is not (anaerobic/invasive/virulent).

Question 52

Neisseria is distinguished from many other Gram- negative pathogens by being (catalase/oxidase/dismutase) positive.

Question 53

Strains of Neisseria spp. need which of the following structural features to be pathogenic?

A) fimbriae
B) a capsule
C) lipooligosaccharide (LOS) in its wall
D) both a capsule and LOS
E) a capsule, fimbriae and an LOS

Question 54

Pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae often involves the destruction of (alveoli/macrophages/epithelium) and the production of bloody sputum.

Question 55

Scientists have identified over 2000 unique serotypes of Salmonella, but DNA analysis indicates that they belong to a single species: S. (enterica/typhi/paratyphi).

Question 56

Unlike other Gram- negative opportunistic bacilli, Bacteroides are (aerotolerant/facultative/obligate) anaerobes.

Question 57

Which of the following is the result of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa?

A) Q fever
B) pertussis
C) meningococcal meningitis
D) acute bacterial meningitis
E) Legionnaires' disease

Question 58

Coliforms are distinguished from noncoliforms by their ability to ferment (glucose/citrate/lactose).

Question 59

Dermonecrotic toxin is produced during (pertussis/Legionellosis/shigellosis) and causes localized constriction and hemorrhage of blood vessels, resulting in cell death and tissue destruction.

Question 60

Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana).

Question 61

MacConkey agar is selective for Haemophilus influenzae.

Question 62

Coxiella burnetii is transmitted to humans mainly via the bite of infected tick vectors.

Question 63

Humans are the sole hosts of Salmonella typhi.

Question 64

By controlling the genetic expression of Vi and H antigens, Salmonella evades the host's immune system and manages to survive.

Question 65

Among the variety of virulence factors possessed by pathogenic enteric bacteria, which one allows them to evade the immune surveillance of its host?

Question 66

Some scientists believe that Shigella may actually be a strain of Escherichia coli that has become oxidase positive.

Question 67

Gonococcal infections result in lifelong immunity against Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Question 68

Compare and contrast Yersinia pestis and Francisella tularensis with respect to clinical manifestations, mechanisms of transmission, reservoirs, and pathogenesis.

Question 69

Why is treatment with antimicrobial drugs NOT encouraged in patients with diarrhea caused by enteric bacteria?

Question 70

Moraxella is a common cause of bacteremia.

Question 71

Lipid A causes disseminated intravenous coagulation (DIC).

Question 72

After a week of asymptomatic infection with Bordetella pertussis, the patient has cold- like (catarrhal) symptoms for a week or two followed a period of severe paroxysmal episodes of coughing that leave the patient anoxic and fatigued.

Question 73

Enterobacteriaceae are rarely pathogenic.

Question 74

How does Salmonella grow in host cells? How does it differ from Shigella?

Question 75

Neisseria meningitidis is able to survive inside macrophages and be transported throughout the body in them.

Question 76

Haemophilus ducreyi is transmitted by sexual contact.

Question 77

Compare and contrast acute bacterial meningitis and meningococcal meningitis, including etiologic agents, pathology, and epidemiology.