Deck 17: Immunization and Immune Testing

Question 1

The vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) vaccine.

A) combination
B) whole inactivated
C) attenuated
D) toxoid
E) subunit

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?

A) aluminum
B) mineral oil
C) saponin
D) formaldehyde
E) aluminum phosphate

Answer 2

D

Question 3

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A) attenuated vaccine
B) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
C) toxoid vaccine
D) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde
E) inactivated whole pathogen

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to treatments for disease.

A) recombinant
B) serologic
C) active immunotherapy
D) passive immunotherapy
E) neutralization

Question 5

Immunization has been a highly successful public health strategy but has not been applied to all pathogens. Which of the following diseases are NOT vaccine-preventable?

A) colds
B) AIDS
C) malaria
D) colds and malaria
E) AIDS, colds, and malaria

Question 6

When immunization levels in a population are high, provides protection from infection for at-risk persons who cannot be immunized.

A) contact immunity
B) herd immunity
C) active immunization
D) variolation
E) adjuvant therapy

Question 7

Monoclonal antibodies can be used for

A) active immunization.
B) passive immunization.
C) labeled antibodies in immunoassays.
D) passive immunization and labeled antibodies in immunoassays.
E) active immunization and agglutination assay reagents.

Question 8

Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
B) treatment with formaldehyde.
C) genetic manipulation.
D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.
E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

Question 9

A person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent?

A) active immunization
B) viral hemagglutination inhibition
C) passive immunotherapy
D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding inactivated vaccine is CORRECT?

A) It results in effective cell-mediated immunity.
B) There is no risk of side effects.
C) It usually requires only a single immunization.
D) It is safer than attenuated vaccines.
E) It may cause the disease it is intended to prevent.

Question 11

An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?

A) attenuated
B) inactivated whole
C) toxoid
D) combination
E) subunit

Question 12

OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it

A) is very toxic.
B) can be spread to contacts.
C) can revert to wild-type virulence.
D) does not provide good immunity.
E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence.

Question 13

The saliva of a highly venomous reptile is found to contain multiple toxic compounds. What is a practical approach to providing people with protection from the deadly effects of a bite from this reptile?

A) Prepare hybridomas specific for each toxin and use the resulting monoclonal antibodies for passive immunotherapy.
B) Prepare antitoxins by immunizing a large animal with the toxins, and use extracted antibodies for treating exposed persons.
C) Prepare extracts of the toxins, inactivate them, and use them one at a time in a series of immunizations.
D) Use recombinant techniques to prepare modified versions of the toxins.
E) Prepare antibodies from the blood of people who survived bites to prepare antisera.

Question 14

Toxoid vaccines are commonly used when

A) immunity to the toxins produced by a pathogen is sufficient to prevent disease.
B) a cell-mediated response is desirable.
C) life-long immunity is desirable.
D) herd immunity is not important.
E) the microbe cannot be cultured in the laboratory.

Question 15

Which of the following statements regarding attenuated vaccines is FALSE?

A) They result, primarily, in antibody-mediated immunity.
B) They can be safely administered to pregnant women.
C) They can easily be developed for any pathogen which can be cultured.
D) They are poorly immunogenic and require multiple immunizations (boosters).
E) They are produced by genetic engineering.

Question 16

Variolation was first used

A) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis.
B) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox.
C) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages.
D) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations.
E) for research purposes in the twentieth century.

Question 17

Genetic manipulation of a microbe to remove one or more virulence factors is a method for producing a(n) vaccine.

A) toxoid
B) combination
C) attenuated
D) DNA
E) inactivated

Question 18

Which of the following vaccines is an infection?

A) recombinant
B) inactivated
C) attenuated
D) toxoid
E) both inactivated and recombinant

Question 19

Passive immunotherapy is used when

A) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated.
B) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately.
C) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated.
D) the pathogen does not produce a toxin.
E) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce.

Question 20

Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against

A) anthrax.
B) rabies.
C) influenza.
D) human cholera.
E) both anthrax and rabies.

Question 21

A new virus is discovered that causes cells to clump together. Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus?

A) viral hemagglutination
B) complement fixation test
C) agglutination
D) both agglutination and complement fixation tests
E) hemagglutination

Question 22

In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when

A) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody.
B) a toxin is present.
C) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen.
D) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.
E) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions.

Question 23

During a visit to a hospital, a child receives the oral polio vaccine. He then returns to his distant village. Sometime later a polio outbreak occurs in the village, but the child and his siblings, who had not had the vaccine, are spared. What is the explanation for this event?

A) herd immunity
B) passive immunity
C) natural immunity
D) contact immunity
E) active immunity

Question 24

Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE?

A) They are not quantitative.
B) They require large amounts of serum.
C) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen.
D) They involve the use of membrane filters.
E) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule.

Question 25

Titration is a serological procedure that

A) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV.
B) is used for blood grouping.
C) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease.
D) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen.
E) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.

Question 26

Agglutination tests can be used to

A) diagnose HIV.
B) detect a complex mix of antigens.
C) estimate the amount (titer) of antibodies in a personʹs serum.
D) determine the effectiveness of passive immunotherapy.
E) determine the concentration of complement proteins in serum.

Question 27

Serologic tests for diagnosis of disease may detect

A) the concentration of serum proteins.
B) antibodies specific for antigens.
C) the level of complement factors in the serum.
D) microbial antigens.
E) either antigens or antibodies specific for certain antigens.

Question 28

Which of the following tests is most effective in determining whether someone has been infected with the H1N1 influenza virus?

A) an immunodiffusion test
B) a viral hemagglutination test
C) an immunoblot
D) an antibody titer test
E) a viral neutralization test

Question 29

A(n) vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.

A) subunit
B) recombinant
C) inactivated whole
D) toxoid
E) attenuated

Question 30

Which of the following assays is dependent on the ability of antibodies to bind to and crosslink two antigens?

A) neutralization tests
B) immunoblot tests
C) direct fluorescent antibody tests
D) precipitation tests
E) ELISAs

Question 31

A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent?

A) an ELISA
B) an immunochromatographic assay
C) a direct immunofluorescence test
D) a complement fixation test
E) a neutralization assay

Question 32

The diagnostic assay represented in the figure is useful when

A) verifying the presence of a pathogen.
B) determining blood type.
C) an immune response may result in production of a mix of antibodies against complex antigens.
D) determining the concentration of antibodies in sera.
E) an immune response is too weak to be detected by other means.

Question 33

Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be detected in specimens by the test.

A) complement fixation
B) indirect fluorescent antibody
C) ELISA
D) hemagglutination
E) direct fluorescent antibody

Question 34

Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that

A) antibodies have different molecular weights.
B) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.
C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.
D) the gene for a pathogenʹs antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid.
E) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen.

Question 35

Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests?

A) The Fc portion of IgG becomes enzymatically active upon antigen binding.
B) The Fc portion can trigger the classical complement system upon antigen binding.
C) Antibodies can bind two antigens simultaneously.
D) The Fc portion of the molecule can be modified without interfering with antigen binding.
E) Antibodies can neutralize the ability of viruses to infect cells.

Question 36

The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be

A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube.
B) a cloudy solution in the tube.
C) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.
D) a fluorescent precipitate.
E) loss of color in the tube.

Question 37

Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for

A) indirect ELISAs.
B) direct fluorescent antibody tests.
C) direct ELISAs.
D) indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
E) both indirect ELISA and indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Question 38

Diagnostic testing to detect antigens or antibodies in the blood is known as

A) cytology.
B) serology.
C) immunology.
D) histology.
E) hematology.

Question 39

Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure?

A) an indirect ELISA
B) an indirect immunofluorescence assay
C) a direct ELISA
D) an immunodiffusion assay
E) a western blot

Question 40

Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen -antibody complexes?

A) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections
B) ELISA
C) fluorescent antibody tests
D) blood typing
E) immunodiffusion

Question 41

A(n) can be used to detect cytopathic virus particles.

A) viral hemagglutination inhibition
B) direct fluorescent antibody
C) viral neutralization
D) immunodiffusion precipitation
E) western blot

Question 42

The ʺsandwichʺ ELISA is used to quantify the amount of antibody in a serum sample.

Question 43

Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests.

Question 44

Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) assay.

A) immunodiffusion precipitation
B) viral hemagglutination inhibition
C) viral neutralization
D) direct fluorescent antibody
E) western blot

Question 45

Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays.

Question 46

For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.

Question 47

ELISAs require less reaction time than do immunofiltration assays.

Question 48

The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells.

Question 49

A positive result in a(n) assay results in a line of immune precipitate on an agar plate.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) viral neutralization
C) immunodiffusion
D) immunoblot
E) viral hemagglutination inhibition

Question 50

Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response.

Question 51

Agglutination tests can be used with serial dilution to determine antibody titers.

Question 52

The use of cowpox as a vaccine against smallpox was the first successful application of an immunization procedure to protect people from an infectious disease.

Question 53

Tissue samples can be tested for pathogen using assays.

A) immunoblot
B) viral neutralization
C) direct fluorescent antibody
D) immunodiffusion precipitation
E) viral hemagglutination inhibition

Question 54

Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).

Question 55

Immunization with (attenuated/recombinant/inactivated) vaccines results in primarily an antibody-mediated immune response.

Question 56

When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, (adjuvants/boosters/repeats) must be given to maintain protection.

Question 57

Precipitation assays involve the formation of immune complexes with while agglutination tests involve agglutination of .

A) soluble antigens; large particles
B) soluble antigens; complement factors
C) soluble antigens; insoluble antigens
D) insoluble antigens; soluble antigens
E) soluble antibodies; insoluble complexes

Question 58

This device is used in a(n) (immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/precipitation) test.

Question 59

Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.

Question 60

Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (attenuated/inactivated) form of the virus.

Question 61

Neutralizing antibodies specific for toxic molecules are known as (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).

Question 62

Complement fixation tests make use of antibodiesʹ natural ability to (activate/agglutinate/neutralize) complement factors.

Question 63

Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays.

Question 64

Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).

Question 65

Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.

Question 66

A microbe antigenically similar to human pathogen but incapable of causing disease in humans is a good candidate for use as a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/recombinant) vaccine.

Question 67

How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?

Question 68

Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids).

Question 69

Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population.

Question 70

The fusion of antibody-producing plasma cells with cancerous cells produces (hybridomas/lymphocytes/cancers) that divide continuously.

Question 71

Materials that are added to a vaccine to increase the effective antigenicity are known as (antigens/adjuvants/antibodies).

Question 72

Modern vaccine technology can involve inserting the DNA encoding the pathogenʹs antigen(s) into a (plasmid/virus) and injecting it into an individual.

Question 73

Fluorescent antibody, ELISA, and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (labeled/unlabeled) antibodies.

Question 74

Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (Salk) and a live attenuated (Sabin) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two polio vaccines.

Question 75

A(n) (ELISA/immunofiltration/western) assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a membrane filter to detect antigens.