Deck 6: Bones and Bone Tissue

Question 1

The patella is classified as a sesamoid bone since it:

A) has a diaphysis and epiphyses.
B) has an irregular shape.
C) is longer than it is wide.
D) is located within tendons.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Whose bone marrow is mostly red?

A) middle ^-aged adults
B) elderly
C) infants
D) young adults

Answer 2

C

Question 3

What structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length?

A) epiphyseal plate
B) epiphyseal line
C) lacunae
D) osteon

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Why is articular cartilage necessary for long bones?

A) Articular cartilage allows bones to rub together with reduced friction at joints.
B) Articular cartilage is the site of lengthwise growth in young children and adolescents.
C) Articular cartilage lines all inner surfaces of the bone.
D) Articular cartilage houses red bone marrow for hematopoiesis.

Question 5

Bones with a diaphysis and epiphyses are classified as:

A) long bones.
B) short bones.
C) irregular bones.
D) flat bones.

Question 6

The periosteum is secured to underlying bone by collagen fibers called:

A) canaliculi.
B) trabeculae.
C) Volkmann's canals.
D) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers.

Question 7

Charlie has a break in the shaft of his thigh bone. He broke the:

A) diaphysis.
B) epiphyseal plate.
C) epiphysis.
D) articular cartilage.

Question 8

What accounts for the majority of bone (osseous) tissue matrix?

A) calcium salts
B) osteoid
C) bone marrow
D) collagen fibers

Question 9

The function of yellow bone marrow is:

A) triglyceride storage.
B) acid ^-base homeostasis.
C) hematopoiesis.
D) mineral storage.

Question 10

Which cells participate in the process of bone deposition?

A) lacuna
B) osteoblasts
C) osteoclasts
D) osteocytes

Question 11

How are carpals and tarsals classified by shape?

A) short bones
B) long bones
C) irregular bones
D) flat bones

Question 12

Bone is the most important storehouse in the body for:

A) calcium.
B) iron.
C) chlorine.
D) sodium.

Question 13

Thin, broad bones should be classified as:

A) irregular bones.
B) flat bones.
C) short bones.
D) long bones.

Question 14

The term diploë refers to the:

A) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue.
B) double ^-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone.
C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones.
D) two types of marrow found within most bones.

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

A) communication
B) blood cell formation
C) mineral storage
D) protection of internal organs

Question 16

Why are collagen fibers a critical component of bone?

A) Collagen fibers act as "glue" to bind components together.
B) Collagen fibers help trap water in the ECM.
C) Collagen fibers help the bone resist compression.
D) Collagen fibers help bone resist torsion.

Question 17

Blood cells are made in the red bone marrow of bones, a process known as:

A) bone resorption.
B) osteoporosis.
C) ossification.
D) hematopoiesis.

Question 18

Bone growth in length occurs at the epiphyseal plate in:

A) irregular bones.
B) short bones.
C) long bones.
D) flat bones.

Question 19

How would the removal of hydroxyapatite crystals from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?

A) The bone would be less compressible.
B) The bone would be stronger.
C) The bone would be more flexible.
D) The bone would be less flexible.

Question 20

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

A) osteoclast
B) osteoblast
C) osteocyte
D) osteogenic cell

Question 21

What tissue serves as the model for bones formed during endochondral ossification?

A) hyaline cartilage
B) fibrocartilage
C) spongy bone
D) compact bone

Question 22

What type of bone is adapted to withstand stresses arriving from many directions?

A) lamellar bone
B) compact bone
C) spongy bone
D) osteon bone

Question 23

Branching "ribs" of bone present in spongy bone are known as:

A) lacunae.
B) trabeculae.
C) canaliculi.
D) lamellae.

Question 24

Intramembranous ossification occurs in:

A) long bones.
B) secondary bone.
C) skull bones.
D) arm and leg bones.

Question 25

In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows:

A) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis.
B) from the edges inward.
C) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis.
D) in a circular fashion.

Question 26

The structural units of mature compact bone are called:

A) lacunae.
B) canaliculi.
C) osteons.
D) osteocytes.

Question 27

Cells that develop into osteoblasts are:

A) osteocytes.
B) osteons.
C) osteogenic cells.
D) osteoclasts.

Question 28

Which statement best describes primary bone?

A) Primary bone contains abundant osteocytes and little inorganic matrix.
B) Primary bone is stronger than secondary bone since it contains many lamellae.
C) Primary bone contains a higher percentage of inorganic matrix than secondary bone.
D) Primary bone has regularly arranged parallel bundles of collagen fibers for strength.

Question 29

Secondary ossification centers are characteristic of:

A) mesenchymal ossification.
B) appositional growth.
C) endochondral ossification.
D) intramembranous ossification.

Question 30

Correctly order the following key steps in the process of endochondral ossification. 1. Chondrocytes die.
2) Osteoblasts build the bone collar on the external surface of the bone.
3) Perichondrium is invaded by blood vessels.
4) In the primary ossification center, osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with early spongy bone.
5) Perichondrial cells differentiate into osteogenic cells then into osteoblasts.

A) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
B) 3, 1, 2, 3, 5
C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
D) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

Question 31

Osteoblasts are to bone deposition as:

A) osteocytes are to fat storage.
B) osteoclasts are to bone resorption.
C) osteoclasts are to hematopoiesis.
D) osteocytes are to bone formation.

Question 32

Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the:

A) periosteum.
B) articular cartilage.
C) diaphysis.
D) epiphyses.

Question 33

What cells contribute to the process of calcification during intramembranous ossification?

A) osteoblasts
B) osteocytes
C) keratinocytes
D) osteoclasts

Question 34

The small, fluid ^-filled cavity occupied by an osteocyte is called a(n):

A) lacuna.
B) trabecula.
C) central canal.
D) osteon.

Question 35

What type of bone growth do you think a 40 ^-year ^-old male experiences?

A) appositional growth
B) lengthwise growth
C) endochondral ossification
D) longitudinal growth

Question 36

Relatively inactive bone cells that help to maintain the ECM are:

A) osteoblasts.
B) osteogenic cells.
C) osteocytes.
D) osteoclasts.

Question 37

Which of the following persists for life?

A) articular cartilage
B) epiphyseal plate
C) primary ossification center
D) primary bone

Question 38

What canals connect lacunae together?

A) central canals
B) canaliculi
C) central (Haversian) canals
D) perforating (Volkmann's) canals

Question 39

What type of bone is illustrated?

A) hyaline cartilage
B) spongy bone
C) compact bone
D) articular cartilage

Question 40

Which of the following are NOT components of an osteon?

A) trabeculae
B) canaliculi
C) lamellae
D) lacunae

Question 41

Which dietary requirement for bone health can be made in response to skin exposure to UV light?

A) vitamin C
B) vitamin K
C) vitamin D
D) calcium ions

Question 42

Bone growth and remodeling depends on adequate intake of:

A) sodium, calcium, and vitamin E.
B) calcium, magnesium, and vitamin B.
C) vitamin A, vitamin C, and chlorine.
D) calcium, vitamin C, and vitamin K.

Question 43

Which of the following promotes bone resorption?

A) compression
B) pressure
C) tension
D) calcium ^-rich diet

Question 44

What hormone promotes an increase in the activity of osteoclasts?

A) estrogen
B) calcitonin
C) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D) testosterone

Question 45

What is the last process to occur in the epiphyseal plate?

A) maturation
B) calcification
C) proliferation
D) ossification

Question 46

Calcitonin functions to:

A) stimulate bone resorption.
B) stimulate osteoclast activity.
C) increase bone deposition.
D) increase blood calcium ion levels.

Question 47

What stimulates the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A) high levels of vitamin C
B) high levels of vitamin D
C) high blood calcium ion levels
D) low blood calcium ion levels

Question 48

Within the epiphyseal plate, which zone houses actively dividing cartilage cells in their lacunae?

A) zone of reserve cartilage
B) zone of proliferation
C) zone of hypertrophy
D) zone of ossification

Question 49

Which hormone, produced by the thyroid gland, works opposite to parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A) thyroid hormones
B) testosterone
C) estrogen
D) calcitonin

Question 50

What is NOT an effect of growth hormone?

A) Growth hormone directly stimulates osteoblasts in the periosteum to promote appositional growth.
B) Growth hormone increases the rate of mitosis in the epiphyseal plate of growing bones.
C) Growth hormone promotes the closure of the epiphyseal plate.
D) Growth hormone increases the activity of osteogenic cells.

Question 51

What vitamin deficiency causes rickets in children?

A) vitamin A
B) vitamin C
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin D

Question 52

Appositional growth produces:

A) growth in length.
B) intramembranous ossification.
C) endochondral ossification.
D) growth in width.

Question 53

For a person who starts running for exercise,

A) bone deposition is not related to bone resorption.
B) bone deposition exceeds bone resorption.
C) bone deposition equals bone resorption.
D) bone deposition is less than bone resorption.

Question 54

A radiograph reveals epiphyseal lines in the long bones of a 12 ^-year ^-old's hand. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) More growth will occur during the teenage years as sex hormones stimulate rebuilding of epiphyseal plates.
B) Administration of growth hormone will stimulate further bone growth in length.
C) Intramembranous ossification will enable continued growth in length.
D) The epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth in length is not possible.

Question 55

As a result of the increase of testosterone at puberty for males:

A) intramembranous ossification increases.
B) appositional bone growth increases.
C) osteoblasts increase the rate of bone resorption.
D) epiphyseal plates widen rapidly.

Question 56

Bone resorption requires the activity of:

A) osteoclasts.
B) chondrocytes.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteocytes.

Question 57

Which of the following does NOT correctly depict the effects of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A) PTH decreases blood calcium ion concentration.
B) PTH stimulates osteoclast activity.
C) PTH weakens the bones.
D) PTH stimulates the intestines to absorb calcium ions.

Question 58

The layers of bone tissue immediately deep to the periosteum are:

A) trabeculae.
B) circumferential lamellae.
C) concentric lamellae.
D) lacunae.

Question 59

What term implies bone deposition via osteoblasts?

A) keratinization
B) resorption
C) calcification
D) degradation

Question 60

What prompts the closure of the epiphyseal plate around age 18 ^-21?

A) chondrocytes actively divide
B) mitosis in the zone of calcification
C) ossification of the zone of proliferation
D) chondrocytes increase in size and mature

Question 61

Bone deposition exceeds bone resorption when bones are stressed through compression or tension.

Question 62

Spongy bone resists forces from many directions and forms a protective framework for the red bone marrow.

Question 63

Summarize the components of an osteon of compact bone tissue.

Question 64

All bone growth completely stops by the end of adolescence.

Question 65

What is the first step of bone repair?

A) soft callus formation
B) bone callus formation
C) hematoma formation
D) primary bone is replaced with secondary bone

Question 66

Place the following steps of bone repair in the correct sequence. 1. The bone callus is remodeled and primary bone is replaced with secondary bone.
2) A hematoma fills the gap between bone fragments.
3) Osteoblasts built a new bone callus.
4) Fibroblasts and chondroblasts infiltrate the hematoma and a soft callus forms.

A) 3, 2, 4, 1
B) 2, 3, 4, 1
C) 2, 4, 3, 1
D) 3, 2, 1, 4

Question 67

Diploë refers to spongy bone in flat bones.

Question 68

Explain how red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow differ structurally.

Question 69

The process of ossification begins at a primary ossification center in both intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Question 70

In the laboratory, your professor presents a bone for study. She explains it has a
diaphysis and epiphyses. Determine the type of bone, by shape, that she has presented and explain how you came to your conclusion.

Question 71

How long does bone repair generally take?

A) 12 ^-16 weeks
B) 2 ^-4 weeks
C) 6 ^-8 weeks
D) 4 ^-6 months

Question 72

What do fibroblasts contribute to bone repair?

A) Fibroblasts direct the transition from primary bone to secondary bone.
B) Fibroblasts secrete hyaline cartilage to form a soft callus.
C) Fibroblasts form new collagen fibers to bridge the gap between bone fragments.
D) Fibroblasts form the hematoma that involves a mass of blood cells.

Question 73

The ribs and sternum are classified as flat bones because they are thin and broad.

Question 74

Hematopoiesis occurs in both the red and yellow marrow of bones.

Question 75

The epiphyseal plate is a layer of compact bone from which longitudinal growth occurs.

Question 76

Bone is the most important storehouse in the body for minerals such as calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium salts.

Question 77

Brittle bone disease (osteogenesis imperfecta) usually results from a collagen deficiency. Explain how a collagen deficiency affects bone structure.

Question 78

Discuss how the osteoblast differs functionally from the osteoclast.

Question 79

The predominant ingredient of the inorganic matrix is calcium salts, with the majority existing as large molecules of hydroxyapatite crystals.

Question 80

The hormone that is primarily involved in the control of bone resorption is parathyroid hormone (PTH).