Deck 27: Development Heredity

Question 1

Which of the following releases human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

A) blastocyst
B) cytotrophoblast
C) syncytiotrophoblast
D) inner cell mass

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The organ systems rudimentarily form during the:

A) fetal period.
B) neo ^-natal period.
C) pre ^-embryonic period.
D) embryonic period.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

When do the extraembryonic membranes form?

A) eighth week of development
B) second week of development
C) fifth week of development
D) tenth week of development

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The fusion of the pronuclei can occur after the oocyte completes:

A) mitosis.
B) capacitation.
C) meiosis II.
D) meiosis I.

Question 5

Where does fertilization usually occur?

A) uterus
B) isthmus of the uterine tube
C) ampulla of the uterine tube
D) infundibulum of the uterine tube

Question 6

Which extraembryonic membrane forms the embryonic part of the placenta?

A) allantois
B) yolk sac
C) amnion
D) chorion

Question 7

After fertilization, a zygote rapidly divides to produce small, genetically identical cells known as:

A) blastomeres.
B) pronuclei.
C) centromeres.
D) trophoblasts.

Question 8

What follows immediately after fertilization occurs?

A) acrosomal reaction
B) cleavage
C) sperm migration
D) capacitation

Question 9

The fusion of a sperm cell and secondary oocyte is known as:

A) ovulation.
B) capacitation.
C) fertilization.
D) meiosis.

Question 10

How is polyspermy prevented?

A) sperm migration
B) acrosomal reaction
C) capacitation
D) cortical reaction

Question 11

The head and tail regions, ventral and dorsal regions, right and left sides are established by:

A) the allantois.
B) ingression.
C) the chorionic villi.
D) the primitive streak.

Question 12

In humans, from which extraembryonic membrane will the first blood cells arise?

A) yolk sac
B) chorion
C) amnion
D) allantois

Question 13

Which part of the embryo contributes to the fetal portion of the placenta?

A) trophoblast
B) hypoblast
C) inner cell mass
D) epiblast

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a prenatal period?

A) embryonic
B) fetal
C) pre ^-embryonic
D) infancy

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT a function of amniotic fluid?

A) protects the embryo from trauma
B) allows the embryo freedom of movement
C) provides nutrition for the developing embryo
D) maintains a constant temperature for the developing embryo

Question 16

When does the prenatal period begin?

A) gestation
B) infancy
C) conception
D) birth

Question 17

Which of the following implants in, or attaches to, the endometrium of the uterus?

A) fetus
B) secondary oocyte
C) blastocyst
D) embryo

Question 18

Failure of the allantois to fully develop will impact the formation of the:

A) digestive tract.
B) kidneys.
C) urinary bladder.
D) skeletal muscles.

Question 19

Which reaction releases enzymes such as hyaluronidase and acrosin that allow sperm to penetrate the corona radiata of the secondary oocyte?

A) cortical reaction
B) capacitation
C) acrosomal reaction
D) sperm migration

Question 20

The 16 ^-cell stage is known as the:

A) blastomere.
B) blastocyst.
C) trophoblast.
D) morula.

Question 21

Which germ layer forms the gonads and kidneys?

A) mesoderm
B) notochord
C) endoderm
D) ectoderm

Question 22

During which process is exposure to teratogens ^most devastating for the development of the embryo's organs?

A) formation of the blastula
B) organogenesis
C) gastrulation
D) cleavage

Question 23

Cephalocaudal folding creates the:

A) future trunk region.
B) primitive gut.
C) digestive tract.
D) head and buttocks regions.

Question 24

What contributes to the fetal portion of the placenta?

A) decidua basalis
B) allantois
C) decidua capsularis
D) chorionic villi

Question 25

The rearrangement and migration of the cells of the bilaminar embryonic disc forms the trilaminar embryonic disc in a process called:

A) gastrulation.
B) formation of the blastula.
C) organogenesis.
D) fertilization.

Question 26

What does the ectoderm form?

A) internal epithelial layer of the digestive system
B) neural plate and neural tube
C) gonads and kidneys
D) internal epithelial layer of the urinary system

Question 27

By which period of prenatal development will the placenta be fully formed?

A) embryonic period
B) pre ^-embryonic period
C) infancy
D) fetal period

Question 28

What is the first major event of organogenesis?

A) formation of somites
B) neurulation
C) formation of the endocrine glands
D) formation of the skin

Question 29

By what week of prenatal development will the placenta be established?

A) week 8
B) week 16
C) week 4
D) week 12

Question 30

Which of the following does NOT occur during the embryonic period?

A) organogenesis
B) formation of the placenta
C) gastrulation
D) implantation

Question 31

Which of the following steps must occur first during the embryonic period?

A) organogenesis
B) gastrulation
C) embryonic folding
D) formation of the primitive streak

Question 32

A birth defect known as spina bifida results from the incomplete closure of the embryonic neural tube. Which germ layer is affected?

A) endoderm
B) mesoderm
C) myotome
D) ectoderm

Question 33

What does gastrulation accomplish?

A) formation of the primitive streak
B) implantation of the blastocyst into the endometrium
C) formation of the three germ layers
D) differentiation of germ layers into organs and organ system

Question 34

What process starts at the embryonic period?

A) fertilization
B) formation of the blastula
C) gastrulation
D) implantation

Question 35

Which of the following is the inner germ layer?

A) ectoderm
B) endoderm
C) mesoderm
D) epiblast

Question 36

By what week of prenatal development will organogenesis be complete?

A) week 16
B) week 12
C) week 4
D) week 8

Question 37

Along which line of the embryo does the primitive streak form?

A) cephalic ^-caudal
B) right ^-left
C) lateral ^-medial
D) dorsal ^-ventral

Question 38

The differentiation of the germ layers into organs and organ systems is known as:

A) embryonic folding.
B) gastrulation.
C) ingression.
D) organogenesis.

Question 39

What connects the placenta to the fetus?

A) notochord
B) allantois
C) umbilical cord
D) chorion

Question 40

What do the umbilical arteries transport?

A) oxygenated blood toward the fetal heart
B) oxygenated blood away from the fetal heart
C) nutrients toward the fetal heart
D) deoxygenated blood away from the fetal heart

Question 41

What cardiovascular changes are NOT typically expected in a pregnant female?

A) increased blood pressure
B) increased cardiac output
C) varicose veins
D) decreased hematocrit

Question 42

Mrs. Floyd developed an accentuated lumbar curvature during the last few months of her pregnancy. Determine this spinal curvature.

A) scoliosis
B) lordosis
C) spina bifida
D) kyphosis

Question 43

During which month of prenatal development will the fetus begin to develop reflexes?

A) month 2
B) month 8
C) month 6
D) month 4

Question 44

What is NOT allowed to pass through the placental barrier between maternal and fetal blood supplies?

A) wastes
B) blood cells
C) nutrients
D) certain gases

Question 45

An adult heart should have a:

A) ductus venosus.
B) ductus arteriosus.
C) foramen ovale.
D) ligamentum arteriosum.

Question 46

Which of the following vascular shunts connects the fetal left and right atria?

A) ductus arteriosus
B) fossa ovalis
C) ductus venosus
D) foramen ovale

Question 47

Which of the following fetal vascular shunts bypasses the liver?

A) foramen ovale
B) ductus venosus
C) ligamentum arteriosum
D) ductus arteriosus

Question 48

The first stage of labor is:

A) dilation.
B) expulsion.
C) effacement.
D) propulsion.

Question 49

The initial stimulus for labor comes from the:

A) fetus.
B) maternal hypothalamus.
C) maternal ovaries.
D) maternal uterus.

Question 50

Approximately how many days after fertilization is a fetus considered full ^-term and ready to be born?

A) 238 days
B) 185 days
C) 324 days
D) 266 days

Question 51

Which hormone makes the medullary respiratory center more sensitive to carbon dioxide levels during pregnancy?

A) relaxin
B) progesterone
C) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) estrogen

Question 52

From what do both lanugo and the vernix caseosa protect the fetus?

A) fat
B) amniotic fluid
C) urine
D) blood

Question 53

What makes estrogen and progesterone after the fourth month of pregnancy to maintain the uterine lining?

A) corpus luteum
B) placenta
C) anterior pituitary
D) ovaries

Question 54

Parturition is also known as:

A) dilation.
B) childbirth.
C) labor.
D) placentation.

Question 55

Which fetal hormone initiates labor?

A) cortisol
B) prolactin
C) estrogen
D) progesterone

Question 56

Krista is having difficulty with the progression of labor. Her obstetrician administers a hormone to assist with her uterine contractions. This hormone is a synthetic version of:

A) oxytocin.
B) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
C) estrogen.
D) cortisol.

Question 57

Determine the series of hormonal events that leads to birth. 1. Oxytocin stimulates the placenta to secrete prostaglandins.
2) Fetal cortisol stimulates the placenta to secrete estrogen.
3) Prostaglandins dilate the cervix, and with oxytocin, increase the strength of uterine contractions.
4) The high estrogen level stimulates the uterus to form oxytocin receptors.

A) 1, 4, 2, 3
B) 2, 4, 3, 1
C) 1, 3, 2, 4
D) 2, 4, 1, 3

Question 58

Labor progresses through the following three stages:

A) duration, expansion, and placental stages.
B) dilation, effacing, and placental stages.
C) dilation, expulsion, and placental stages.
D) dilation, expansion, and pushing stages.

Question 59

Which hormone suppresses uterine contractions until birth?

A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B) melanocyte ^-stimulating hormone (MSH)
C) relaxin
D) human placental lactogen (hPL)

Question 60

A positive feedback mechanism initiates the rhythmic contractions of labor. Determine the hormones involved in this feedback loop.

A) prostaglandins and oxytocin
B) relaxin and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C) cortisol and aldosterone
D) estrogens and progesterone

Question 61

When environmental factors influence gene expression, this is referred to as:

A) multiple alleles.
B) codominance.
C) multifactorial inheritance.
D) polygenic inheritance.

Question 62

Joanne is ready to give birth. How much should her cervix be dilated?

A) 2 mm
B) 20 cm
C) 4 cm
D) 10 cm

Question 63

Which antibodies are found in colostrum?

A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgG
D) IgD

Question 64

Inherited traits controlled by two or more genes are called:

A) incomplete dominance.
B) multiple alleles.
C) polygenic inheritance.
D) codominance.

Question 65

In order for a male to inherit a sex ^-linked (X ^-linked) disorder, he must receive the allele from:

A) either his mother or father.
B) his mother only.
C) his father only.
D) both his mother and father.

Question 66

The embryonic period of prenatal development occurs from week 3 until week 8.

Question 67

April has an abundance of freckles, a physical expression of her genes known as the:

A) genotype.
B) homologous.
C) phenotype.
D) alleles.

Question 68

Predict the possible blood types, or phenotypes, of offspring in which the father has blood type O and the mother has blood type AB.

A) The possible blood types of the offspring are phenotypes A or O only.
B) The possible blood types of the offspring are phenotypes A or B only.
C) The possible blood types of the offspring are phenotypes A, B, AB, or O.
D) The possible blood types of the offspring are phenotypes AB or O only.

Question 69

The best fetal position for birth is the:

A) nonvertex position.
B) buttocks ^-first position.
C) breech position.
D) vertex position.

Question 70

What is the neonatal period?

A) the first six months of life
B) the first four weeks of life
C) the first year of life
D) the first four months of life

Question 71

Which hormones stimulate the growth of alveoli in the mother's mammary gland?

A) estrogen and prolactin
B) oxytocin and progesterone
C) prolactin and cortisol
D) estrogen and progesterone

Question 72

If two alleles code for the same trait (such as blond hair), they are said to be:

A) homozygous.
B) homologous.
C) heterozygous.
D) autologous.

Question 73

The Apgar score is assigned for several criteria measured at birth. What is NOT measured?

A) respiratory level
B) muscle activity
C) grimace
D) defecation

Question 74

What is the afterbirth?

A) meconium, bile, and other wastes
B) urine
C) amniotic fluids
D) placenta and attached fetal extraembryonic membranes

Question 75

In the case of blood types, both alleles A and B may be expressed as the phenotype. This exemplifies:

A) polygenic inheritance.
B) sex ^-linked inheritance.
C) codominance.
D) incomplete dominance.

Question 76

After birth, the mother may lose excess fluids from the uterus as:

A) lochia.
B) meconium.
C) colostrum.
D) lactation.

Question 77

What major event occurs during the first stage of labor?

A) The cervix thins and dilates.
B) The placenta is delivered.
C) The fetal head crowns.
D) The newborn is delivered.

Question 78

Predict the possibility of an offspring with a widow's peak, a dominant inherited trait affecting the hairline, when both parents are heterozygous for the trait.

A) 25% of the offspring will have a widow's peak.
B) 0% of the offspring will have a widow's peak.
C) 75% of the offspring will have a widow's peak.
D) 100% of the offspring will have a widow's peak.

Question 79

Which of the following is an inherited trait influenced by multiple alleles?

A) sickle cell anemia
B) ABO blood types
C) skin color
D) color blindness

Question 80

During which stage of labor does the fetal head crown?

A) placental
B) effacement
C) dilation
D) expulsion