Deck 20: The Lymphatic System Immunity

Question 1

What do lacteals, located in the small intestine, collect?

A) fat
B) carbohydrates
C) intracellular fluid
D) blood

Answer 1

A

Question 2

What is the function of the red pulp of the spleen?

A) house macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes
B) filter pathogens from the blood
C) house leukocytes and dendritic cells
D) filter pathogens from lymph

Answer 2

A

Question 3

A sinus infection would most likely cause swollen:

A) axillary lymph nodes.
B) inguinal lymph nodes.
C) mesenteric lymph nodes.
D) cervical lymph nodes.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Mucosa ^-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) include the:

A) kidneys.
B) spleen.
C) liver.
D) tonsils.

Question 5

What best describes lymphatic capillaries?

A) two ^-way circuit to and from the heart
B) transport blood
C) extremely permeable
D) impermeable

Question 6

The lymph ducts in the thoracic cavity drain into the:

A) junction of the internal jugular vein and subclavian vein.
B) junction of the brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) external jugular veins.

Question 7

An accumulation of excess interstitial fluid is known as:

A) edema.
B) lysis.
C) infection.
D) crenation.

Question 8

What makes lymphatic vessels similar to the venous circuit of the cardiovascular system?

A) Both vessels have valves.
B) Both vessels have a thick tunica media.
C) Both vessels feed into capillary beds.
D) Both vessels operate under high pressure.

Question 9

What type of mucosa ^-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) is located in the ileum (last portion) of the small intestine?

A) adenoid
B) appendix
C) Peyer's patches
D) tonsils

Question 10

Fluid found in lymphatic vessels is known as:

A) intracellular fluid.
B) lymph.
C) interstitial fluid.
D) plasma.

Question 11

What is the main role of macrophages in the lymphatic tissues?

A) structure and support
B) form structures of neurons
C) phagocytosis
D) form collagen fibers

Question 12

Which lymph trunks receive lymph from the upper limbs?

A) jugular trunks
B) intestinal trunks
C) subclavian trunks
D) bronchomediastinal trunks

Question 13

Where are pathogens filtered from lymph?

A) spleen
B) lacteals
C) tonsils
D) lymph nodes

Question 14

The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from the:

A) right arm.
B) left arm.
C) right leg.
D) left leg.

Question 15

What region of the lymph node contains many mature B cells?

A) capsule
B) medulla
C) cortex
D) trabeculae

Question 16

What mucosa ^-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) traps pathogens entering the nasal and oral cavities?

A) tonsils
B) appendix
C) Peyer's patches
D) lymph nodes

Question 17

Lymph traveling from the right arm will be filtered by:

A) inguinal lymph nodes.
B) cervical lymph nodes.
C) mesenteric lymph nodes.
D) axillary lymph nodes.

Question 18

What vessels pick up excess extracellular fluid in the interstitial space and return it to circulation?

A) lymphatic vessels
B) jugular veins
C) coronary arteries
D) pulmonary veins

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the lymphatic system?

A) immune functions
B) absorption of dietary fats
C) regulation of interstitial fluid volume
D) regulation of calcium ion concentration in the blood

Question 20

Which organ generates a population of T cells capable of protecting the body from pathogens?

A) spleen
B) tonsils
C) thymus
D) lymph nodes

Question 21

If the thymus shrank and stopped making hormones in a child, we would expect to see a decrease in the number of:

A) eosinophils.
B) T lymphocytes (T cells).
C) neutrophils.
D) B lymphocytes (B cells).

Question 22

What type of immunity exists even in the absence of a stimulus?

A) innate immunity
B) cell ^-mediated immunity
C) adaptive immunity
D) specific immunity

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense?

A) mucus
B) antibody
C) keratin
D) oil

Question 24

Which lymphoid organ is required for the selection of a functional population of T lymphocytes (T cells) for the immune system?

A) thymus
B) thyroid gland
C) liver
D) tonsil

Question 25

What type of non ^-phagocytic cell mediates inflammation?

A) basophil
B) neutrophil
C) eosinophil
D) natural killer (NK) cell

Question 26

A high level of pyrogens most affects the:

A) pons.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.

Question 27

What organ is responsible for producing most of the plasma proteins known as the complement system?

A) liver
B) heart
C) spleen
D) kidney

Question 28

A patient has a high level of pyrogens, indicating that she:

A) has a sore throat.
B) has a fever.
C) is feeling achy.
D) has swollen lymph nodes.

Question 29

What are the primary cells of adaptive immunity?

A) dendritic cells
B) natural killer (NK) cells
C) cytokines
D) lymphocytes

Question 30

What cells display portions of the pathogens (antigens) they ingest on their plasma membranes?

A) antigen ^-presenting cells
B) basophils
C) natural killer (NK) cells
D) eosinophils

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT a cytokine involved in innate immunity?

A) interferons
B) tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
C) interleukins
D) opsonins

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

A) swelling (edema)
B) pain
C) cold
D) redness

Question 33

Surface barriers, such as cutaneous and mucous membranes, serve the immune system as the:

A) third line of defense.
B) first line of defense.
C) second line of defense.
D) fourth line of defense.

Question 34

How long after initial tissue damage does leukocytosis occur?

A) 2 ^-3 minutes
B) 2 ^-3 days
C) 2 ^-3 hours
D) 2 ^-3 weeks

Question 35

Sheena's B lymphocytes (B cells) produced antibodies to protect her about 3 ^-5 days after she was exposed to a virus. What type of immunity do antibodies provide?

A) cell ^-mediated immunity
B) nonspecific immunity
C) acquired immunity
D) innate immunity

Question 36

Which of the following is a non ^-phagocytic cell?

A) basophil
B) neutrophil
C) eosinophil
D) macrophage

Question 37

Mary's mosquito bite is red, warm, and swollen, indicating she is experiencing the effects of:

A) interferons.
B) tumor necrosis factor (TNF).
C) the inflammatory response.
D) interleukins.

Question 38

During the second stage of the inflammatory response, what do neutrophils accomplish when they migrate to areas of damaged tissue?

A) Neutrophils destroy bacteria and other cellular debris.
B) Neutrophils increase capillary permeability.
C) Neutrophils are potent vasodilators.
D) Neutrophils interfere with the ability of viruses or bacteria to infect other cells.

Question 39

What is NOT a function of macrophages?

A) Macrophages serve as antigen ^-presenting cells.
B) Macrophages kill ingested pathogens with chemicals.
C) Macrophages activate T lymphocytes (T cells).
D) Macrophages secrete substances onto pathogens that are too large to ingest.

Question 40

What statement best describes pyrogens?

A) Pyrogens interfere with the ability of bacteria or viruses to infect other cells.
B) Pyrogens cause the hypothalamic thermostat to reset to a higher range.
C) Pyrogens increase secretion of thymosin.
D) Pyrogens are potent vasodilators.

Question 41

Which of the following are TRUE of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?

A) Class I MHC molecules present exogenous antigens.
B) Class I MHC molecules present endogenous antigens.
C) Class I MHC molecules bind complement.
D) Class I MHC molecules are only present on erythrocyte surfaces.

Question 42

Activated B cells differentiate into:

A) effector cells and memory T cells.
B) antibodies and memory B cells.
C) plasma cells and memory B cells.
D) plasma cells and effector cells.

Question 43

Which of the following represent the five basic classes of antibodies?

A) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgF, and IgK
B) IgA, IgB, IgC, IgD, and IgE
C) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM
D) IgA, IgB, IgJ, IgL, and IgM

Question 44

Which antibody is the only one capable of crossing the placenta from a pregnant woman to her developing fetus?

A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG

Question 45

Determine the first phase of the antibody ^-mediated immune response.

A) Antibody levels in the blood rise dramatically.
B) B cell clones recognize its specific antigen.
C) B cells should now be present in the body's fluids.
D) Memory cells react rapidly upon a second encounter with the antigen.

Question 46

Where do T cells become immunocompetent?

A) thymus
B) bone marrow
C) thyroid gland
D) tonsils

Question 47

What of the following should NOT elicit an immune response in your own body?

A) self antigens
B) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules bound to antigens
C) immunogens
D) haptens bound with a protein carrier

Question 48

What part of an antibody is responsible for antigen recognition and binding?

A) variable (V) regions
B) light (L) chains
C) constant (C) region
D) heavy (H) chains

Question 49

Which of the following secretes antibodies?

A) memory B cells
B) antigen ^-presenting cells
C) dendritic cells
D) plasma cells

Question 50

How many antigen ^-binding sites for antigens does each IgG antibody possess on its V regions?

A) 1
B) 6
C) 4
D) 2

Question 51

What is a determinant for organ compatibility and rejection of transplants?

A) pyrogens
B) interleukins
C) perforins
D) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

Question 52

Clonal selection occurs when:

A) B cells undergo rapid mitosis.
B) B cells differentiate into plasma cells and memory B cells.
C) plasma cells secrete antibodies.
D) B cells are activated.

Question 53

What initiates T cell activation?

A) T cell activation begins when the T cell differentiates into effector cells and memory cells.
B) T cell activation begins with a cell processing and displaying antigen fragments on its MHC molecules.
C) T cell activation begins with the interaction of the T cell with other molecules on the cells called co ^-stimulators.
D) T cell activation begins when a T cell is ingested by a macrophage.

Question 54

Immunoglobulins are also known as:

A) antibodies.
B) antigens.
C) agglutinogens.
D) memory cells.

Question 55

Cells that help regulate the immune response are:

A) cytotoxic T (T_C) cells.
B) CD8 cells.
C) helper T (T_H) cells.
D) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules.

Question 56

What protein, released by cytotoxic T (T_C) cells, perforates a target cell's plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell's DNA?

A) interferons
B) perforins
C) cytokines
D) interleukins

Question 57

What cells are responsible for cell ^-mediated immunological memory in which the immune response is expedited upon subsequent exposure to an antigen?

A) memory T cells
B) effector cells
C) MHC molecules
D) B cells

Question 58

B cells develop and mature in the:

A) lymph nodes.
B) liver.
C) bone marrow.
D) thymus.

Question 59

Activated helper T (T_H) cells or cytotoxic T (T_C) cell clones differentiate into:

A) effector cells and memory T cells.
B) memory B cells and memory T cells.
C) effector cells and plasma cells.
D) plasma cells and memory B cells.

Question 60

Madison wants to give a kidney to her older sister. What type of organ transplant will this be?

A) autograft
B) allograft
C) isograft
D) xenograft

Question 61

When a person has an autoimmune disorder, antibodies are secreted that bind to:

A) immunoglobulins.
B) other antibodies.
C) allergens.
D) self antigens.

Question 62

Vaccinations involve exposure to an antigen to elicit:

A) passive immunity.
B) a secondary immune response.
C) a primary immune response.
D) severe allergic reaction.

Question 63

Elevated levels of neutrophils indicate:

A) cancer.
B) viral infection.
C) normal condition.
D) bacterial infection.

Question 64

Failure of the thymus to develop, low circulating levels of lymphocytes, and failure of cell ^-mediated immunity characterize:

A) human immunodeficiency virus 1 (HIV ^-1).
B) antibody ^-mediated hypersensitivity.
C) severe ^-combined immunodeficiency (SCID).
D) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

Question 65

The primary immune response:

A) primarily involves the antibody IgG.
B) occurs after the first exposure to an antigen.
C) has a shorter lag phase than the secondary immune response.
D) produces peak antibody levels rapidly (1 ^-3 days).

Question 66

The clumping of cells that are cross ^-linked by their attachments to antibodies is known as:

A) agglutination.
B) precipitation.
C) neutralization.
D) opsonization.

Question 67

T cells and natural killer (NK) cells are largely involved in scanning the cells in the body for tumor antigens, a function known as:

A) vaccination.
B) complement.
C) immune surveillance.
D) agglutination.

Question 68

What cells decline in number during the final phase of HIV ^-1 infection, when an individual is said to have AIDS?

A) memory B cells
B) helper T (T_H) cells
C) plasma cells
D) B cells

Question 69

What cells play an extensive role in the eradication of bacteria as phagocytes?

A) memory B cells
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) neutrophils

Question 70

What is occuring when an antibody renders bacterial toxins, viral proteins, or animal venom inactive?

A) complement activation
B) agglutination
C) neutralization
D) opsonization

Question 71

Which immune response has a shorter lag phase in which more antibody levels peak more rapidly?

A) passive immunity
B) primary immune response
C) secondary immune response
D) inflammation response

Question 72

Mrs. Sanchez had a great deal of inflammation after her recent surgery. The inflammation was triggered by the antibody known as:

A) IgM
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgD

Question 73

What of the following confers passive immunity?

A) antivenin against snake venom
B) viral infection
C) bacterial infection
D) vaccination

Question 74

Blood transfusions between incompatible blood types results in:

A) type II, or antibody ^-mediated, hypersensitivity.
B) type I, or immediate, hypersensitivity.
C) type III, or immune ^-complex mediated, hypersensitivity.
D) type IV, or delayed ^-type, hypersensitivity.

Question 75

Type I, or immediate, hypersensitivity triggers plasma cells to secrete:

A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgD

Question 76

What type of cell is activated in lymphatic tissue by macrophages presenting antigens during a viral infection?

A) natural killer (NK) cell
B) helper T (T_H) cell
C) memory B cell
D) plasma cell

Question 77

Cancer cells can suppress T cell activity by releasing:

A) perforins.
B) pyrogens.
C) opsonins.
D) cytokines.

Question 78

The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the intestinal trunk and the lumbar trunk.

Question 79

Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?

A) opsonization
B) phagocytosis
C) neutralization
D) agglutination

Question 80

Which antibody is NOT secreted by B cells in significant amounts?

A) IgD
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgM