Deck 17: Blood

Question 1

Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.

Question 5

Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.

Question 6

In clotting, prothrombin activator catalyzes prothrombin into thrombin, which in turn converts fibrinogen into fibrin.

Question 7

Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.

Question 8

White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.

Question 9

Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.

Question 10

Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.

Question 11

Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin.

Question 12

When erythrocytes are destroyed, some of the heme is converted into bilirubin and then secreted as bile.

Question 13

Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.

Question 14

A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.

Question 15

Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.

Question 16

Leukocytes move through the interstitial spaces by amoeboid motion.

Question 17

The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.

Question 18

Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes.

Question 19

The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.

Question 20

Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.

Question 21

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that .

A) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells
B) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells
C) platelets are larger than red blood cells
D) platelets are larger than white blood cells

Question 22

A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because .

A) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus
B) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
C) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells
D) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation

Question 23

People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is _ .

A) sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria
B) malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait
C) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
D) the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait

Question 24

Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage?

A) injection with erythropoietin (EPO)
B) prolonged or excessive fever
C) dehydration
D) living at higher altitude

Question 25

Lipids (either nutrients or hormones) are insoluble in water but are found traveling in the plasma of the blood. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this?

A) lipids are carried in plasma bound to soluble plasma transport proteins
B) lipids are carried only in the lymph which is primarily composed of unsaturated fats
C) enzymes in the plasma convert lipids to soluble forms
D) lipids are carried inside blood cells

Question 26

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that .

A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells
B) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells
C) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells
D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells

Question 27

Which blood component primarily contributes to plasma osmotic pressure?

A) blood borne nutrients
B) gamma globulin
C) electrolytes
D) albumin

Question 28

A person exhibiting suppression of immunity and clotting disorder as well as low oxygen-carrying capacity is likely suffering from which of the following?

A) iron deficiency anemia
B) pernicious anemia
C) aplastic anemia
D) hemorrhagic anemia

Question 29

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

A) 7.75-7.85
B) 8.35-8.45
C) 4.65-4.75
D) 7.35-7.45

Question 30

Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.

Question 31

With a patient who is administered an injection of colony stimulating factor (CSF), you would expect to see .

A) decreased red blood cell count
B) increased white blood cell count
C) increased red blood cell count
D) decreased white blood cell count

Question 32

A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering .

A) anemia
B) a bacterial infection
C) polycythemia
D) a viral infection

Question 33

Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?

A) pallor (pale skin)
B) edema (swelling)
C) fever with pain
D) loss of blood clotting

Question 34

Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening?

A) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity
B) loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure
C) loss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity
D) loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure

Question 35

If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following EXCEPT .

A) higher blood viscosity
B) higher hematocrit
C) lower immunity
D) lower plasma levels

Question 36

A patient's hematocrit shows an unusually large buffy coat. What is a likely cause for this?

A) thrombocytopenia
B) lipidemia
C) anemia
D) severe infection

Question 37

Which body activity would be most affected if a patient lacked an adequate number of erythrocytes (anemia)?

A) oxygen transport
B) hormone transport
C) clotting
D) immune response

Question 38

Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of WBCs?

A) positive chemotaxis
B) diapedesis
C) granulosis
D) ameboid motion

Question 39

With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see .

A) increased hematocrit
B) decreased white blood cell count
C) increased white blood cell count
D) decreased hematocrit

Question 40

Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping. Viscosity of blood is highest when _ .

A) hematocrit is highest
B) hemoglobin levels are lowest
C) plasma levels are highest
D) HbA1C levels are lowest

Question 41

The cells responsible for producing platelets are called .

A) lymphoid stem cells
B) megakaryocytes
C) monoblasts
D) myeloblasts

Question 42

A patient with type A positive blood can, in theory, safely donate blood to someone with blood.

A) A positive, A negative, AB positive, or AB negative
B) A positive or AB positive
C) A positive, A negative, O positive, or O negative
D) A positive or O positive

Question 43

Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

A) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.
B) His blood lacks Rh factor.
C) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
D) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.

Question 44

Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding _.

A) rate of platelet formation
B) WBC ability to defend the body against disease
C) clotting ability of the blood
D) rate of erythrocyte formation

Question 45

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

A) decreased tissue demand for oxygen
B) moving to a lower altitude
C) an increased number of RBCs
D) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

Question 46

Replacing lost blood volume with an isotonic saline solution _ .

A) restores the patient's blood glucose levels
B) lowers the patient's blood volume
C) lowers the patient's hematocrit
D) restores the oxygen-carrying capacity of the circulation

Question 47

Blood doping refers to the practice of before an athletic event.

A) injecting performance-enhancing steroids into the blood
B) training at high altitude to increase red blood cell production
C) removing, storing, and re-injecting a person's red blood cells
D) injecting high amounts of oxygen into the blood stream

Question 48

Hemolytic disease of the newborn will NOT be possible in which of the following situations listed below?

A) if the father is Rh+
B) if the child is Rh+
C) if the father is Rh-
D) if the child is type O positive

Question 49

When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type .

A) B
B) AB
C) A
D) O

Question 50

Which is NOT true of leukocytes?

A) They account for less than 1% of total blood volume.
B) They move by amoeboid motion.
C) They all contain easily recognizable membrane-bound cytoplasmic granules.
D) They are the only formed elements that are true cells.

Question 51

Leukocytes displaying red cytoplasmic granules when treated with Wright's stain are most likely .

A) monocytes
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) erythrocytes

Question 52

Which of the following would NOT be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?

A) travel at high altitude
B) prolonged exposure to cold
C) vigorous exercise
D) malaria

Question 53

A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of .

A) pernicious anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) polycythemia
D) sickle-cell anemia

Question 54

If a patient with type B blood received a transfusion of AB blood, which of the following would occur?

A) The patient's anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the A antigens (antiglutinogens) in the donor blood.
B) The patient's B antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood.
C) The patient's A antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood.
D) The patient's anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the B antigens (agglutinins) in the donor blood.

Question 55

Which is NOT true of thrombocytopenia?

A) It is caused by having a low number of circulating platelets.
B) It may produce petechiae.
C) It can be caused by conditions that destroy bone marrow.
D) It increases the risk of embolus formation.

Question 56

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

A) hemocytoblast
B) megakaryocyte
C) polymorphonuclear cell
D) normoblast

Question 57

All of the following can be expected with polycythemia EXCEPT _.

A) high hematocrit
B) increased blood volume
C) high blood pressure
D) low blood viscosity

Question 58

The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is .

A) hemoglobin B
B) hemoglobin A
C) hemoglobin S
D) hemoglobin F

Question 59

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

A) liver
B) pancreas
C) kidney
D) brain

Question 60

Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

A) AB positive
B) B negative
C) A positive
D) O negative

Question 61

List three blood tests that might be ordered if anemia is suspected.

Question 62

The group of blood disorders in which blood oxygen levels are inadequate to support normal metabolism is called _.

Question 63

A patient complains of no energy, a chronic sore throat, a low-grade fever, and is tired and achy. His doctor notes an enlarged spleen upon examination. What diagnosis would you expect and what definitive test would you request?

Question 64

Why would there be cause for concern if a young pregnant mother is Rh-, her husband is Rh+, and this is their second child?

Question 65

List the granulocytes and describe the appearance of their granules in a typical blood smear.

Question 66

List the most common causes of bleeding disorders.

Question 67

How many polypeptide chains make up hemoglobin?

Question 68

List the two general factors that limit normal clot growth to the sight of injury.

Question 69

What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood?

Question 70

A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide?

Question 71

Why is iron not stored or transported in its free form? In what form(s) is it stored or transported in blood?

Question 72

If a person has AB type blood, which of the ABO blood types can they receive as a transfusion?

Question 73

Why are the two pathways of blood clotting referred to as the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways?

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a typical plasma protein?

A) globulins
B) erythropoietin
C) fibrinogen
D) albumin

Question 75

Why is blood considered a connective tissue?

A) It allows for chemical signals from one area of the body to reach another.
B) It is found in all areas of the body.
C) Plasma contains dissolved fibrous proteins.
D) It acts as an adhesive layer between tissue types.

Question 76

What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull, dark red?

Question 77

Explain why blood is classified as a connective tissue.

Question 78

When diagnosing an iron deficiency one of the first tests is a red blood cell count. Why is this so?

Question 79

Why is hemoglobin enclosed in erythrocytes rather than existing free in plasma?

Question 80

When monocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces to fight infection, they change to a different type of cell called _.