Deck 22: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System

Question 1

All of the following are toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis EXCEPT:

A) dermonecrotic toxin.
B) pyrogenic toxin.
C) pertussis toxin.
D) adenylate cyclase toxin.
E) tracheal cytotoxin.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following is extremely fastidious in its nutrient requirements, which include iron salts and cysteine?

A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Bacillus anthracis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Legionella pneumophila

Answer 2

E

Question 3

Which of the following allows group A streptococci to spread through tissues by breaking down blood clots?

A) streptokinase
B) pyrogenic toxins
C) streptolysin
D) a hyaluronic acid capsule
E) M proteins

Answer 3

A

Question 4

All of the following are true statements concerning tuberculosis EXCEPT:

A) Virulent strains of M. tuberculosis produce cord factor.
B) It occurs only in the lungs.
C) Only about 10 cells are required for infection.
D) Ghon complexes are produced when the immune system eliminates the infection.
E) It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to 8 months.

Question 5

All of the following are true statements concerning diphtheria EXCEPT:

A) It is uncommon in industrialized countries.
B) A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria.
C) It can be treated with penicillin.
D) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin.
E) A conclusive diagnosis is made with an Elek test.

Question 6

V shapes and palisade arrangements are associated with which of the following?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Chlamydophila psittaci
E) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Question 7

The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following?

A) the common cold
B) pneumonia
C) anthrax
D) pertussis
E) tuberculosis

Question 8

Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by

A) suppressing mucus production.
B) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.
C) the development of pneumonia.
D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages.
E) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.

Question 9

The majority of adult cases of pneumonia are caused by

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
E) Klebsiella pneumoniae.

Question 10

All of the following are normal microbiota of the upper respiratory system EXCEPT:

A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Moraxella catarrhalis.

Question 11

All of the following are true statements concerning the common cold EXCEPT:

A) Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37°C.
B) Colds are rarely transmitted by explosive sneezes.
C) Viruses in the genus Rhinovirus are one cause of the common cold.
D) Cold viruses remain viable for hours outside the body.
E) It is confined to the upper respiratory tract.

Question 12

All of the following are true statements concerning inhalational anthrax EXCEPT:

A) It is the most severe form of anthrax.
B) An effective vaccine is available.
C) A variety of drugs can be used to treat anthrax.
D) It is transmitted by endospores.
E) It can be spread from person to person.

Question 13

Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as S. pyogenes) exhibit which of the following types of hemolysis?

A) no hemolysis
B) alpha
C) beta
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both A and C are correct.

Question 14

Legionella causes legionellosis and which of the following?

A) whooping cough
B) pneumonia
C) disseminated tuberculosis
D) Pontiac fever
E) SARS

Question 15

Diphtheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes?

A) protein synthesis
B) nucleic acid synthesis
C) adenylate cyclase activity
D) cell membrane function
E) complement function

Question 16

Which of the following is associated with some cases of streptococcal pharyngitis?

A) scarlet fever
B) acute glomerulonephritis
C) rheumatic fever
D) Both B and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct

Question 17

Which of the following S. pyogenes virulence factors decreases leukocyte activity and movement into an infected area?

A) streptokinases
B) the hyaluronic acid capsule
C) streptolysins
D) pyrogenic toxins
E) C5a peptidase

Question 18

The designation "group A," used to help classify Streptococcus pyogenes, refers to this bacterium's

A) M protein.
B) Lancefield antigen.
C) hemolysis pattern.
D) type of streptokinase produced.
E) disease associations.

Question 19

What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A) the ability to lyse red blood cells
B) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule
C) strain- specific teichoic acids in its cell wall
D) the production of pneumolysin
E) the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory system?

A) larynx
B) pharynx
C) trachea
D) bronchi
E) alveoli

Question 21

Croup is often a result of infection with which of the following?

A) influenzavirus
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) RSV
E) hantavirus

Question 22

Mycobacteria are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

A) presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall.
B) intracellular growth capablility.
C) resistance to Gram staining because of cord factor production.
D) slow growth.
E) resistance to lysis after phagocytosis.

Question 23

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person to person, and from rodents to humans.

Question 24

Which of the following is the most common fungal systemic disease in humans?

A) valley fever
B) coccidioidomycosis
C) Pneumocystis pneumonia
D) histoplasmosis
E) blastomycosis

Question 25

Pneumocystis jiroveci is

A) a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans.
B) difficult to treat with antimicrobial drugs.
C) an obligate parasite that cannot survive on its own in the environment.
D) actually a protozoan, not a fungus.
E) not a danger to immunodeficient patients.

Question 26

Coccidioides germinates in the lung into a form called a(n)

A) spherule.
B) syncytium.
C) arthroconidium.
D) yeast.
E) spore.

Question 27

Pneumocystis jiroveci infects only immunocompromised patients.

Question 28

Names given to influenza strains convey all of the following information EXCEPT:

A) the date of original identification.
B) the location of original identification.
C) the particular influenza antigens involved.
D) the type of influenzavirus.
E) the types of cells infected.

Question 29

The typical signs and symptoms of flu are a result of

A) secondary bacterial infections.
B) the death of cells outside the lungs.
C) the release of viral toxins.
D) cytokines released as part of the immune response.
E) syncytium formation.

Question 30

Microscopic evaluation of suitable specimens is a useful way of diagnosing histoplasmosis.

Question 31

Coronaviruses cause

A) the common cold.
B) SARS.
C) valley fever.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.

Question 32

Coronaviruses are named for their corona- like halo envelopes.

Question 33

Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of controlling

A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) bronchiolitis.
D) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
E) inhalational anthrax.

Question 34

Which of the following diseases is considered diagnostic for AIDS?

A) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
B) Pneumocystis pneumonia
C) blastomycosis
D) histoplasmosis
E) coccidioidomycosis

Question 35

All of the following are true statements concerning primary atypical pneumonia EXCEPT:

A) It is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B) The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract.
C) It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried- egg" colonies on agar.
D) It can last for weeks but is not usually severe enough to require hospitalization.
E) It is also known as "walking pneumonia."

Question 36

Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by

A) Yersinia pestis.
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C) Chlamydophila psittaci.
D) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
E) Klebsiella pneumoniae.

Question 37

Blastomycosis is transmitted by

A) inhalation of spherules.
B) contact with infected sputum.
C) inhalation of fungal spores.
D) inhalation of respiratory droplets.
E) contact with fomites.

Question 38

Even though mycoplasmas pass through filters that normally trap bacteria, they are known not to be viruses because they

A) divide by binary fission.
B) do not synthesize peptidoglycan.
C) contain both DNA and RNA.
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.

Question 39

The seriousness of Coccidioides infections can be attributed to the pathogen's formation and spread of spherules.

Question 40

Influenzaviruses are exhibiting increased resistance to which of the following drugs?

A) oseltamivir
B) amantadine
C) zanamivir
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.

Question 41

is a type of pneumonia in which the alveoli and bronchioles become filled with pus.

Question 42

Cell death and tissue destruction result from the action of toxin produced by Bordetella pertussis.

Question 43

tuberculosis results when macrophages carry M. tuberculosis to a variety of extrapulmonary sites such as the bone marrow and spleen.

Question 44

A major change in the antigens of influenza A, which occurs every 10 years on average, is called .

Question 45

ICAM- 1 serves as an attachment protein for almost all .

Question 46

Cold viruses are prevented from infecting most areas of the body because the latter are either too hot or too acidic.

Question 47

The pathogenic effects of influenza make infected individuals more susceptible to secondary bacterial infections caused by pathogens such as .

Question 48

The presence of distinctive spiny spores is diagnostic for the causative agent of .

Question 49

Strains of M. tuberculosis designated as strains are resistant in vitro to three or more antitubercular drugs besides isoniazid and rifampin.

Question 50

Pneumonia caused by the bacterium has a higher mortality rate than pneumococcal or mycoplasmal pneumonias.

Question 51

Elongation factor, a protein required for eukaryotic translation, is the cellular target of the toxin produced by
.

Question 52

Group A Streptococcus produces a class of molecules called _ _ that stimulate leukocytes to release fever- inducing cytokines.

Question 53

Loeffler's medium was developed especially to culture the bacterium that causes .

Question 54

are the smallest free- living microbes.

Question 55

Protective membranes called surround the lungs.

Question 56

Specimens suspected to contain Bordetella pertussis must be inoculated onto appropriate media at the patient's bedside.

Question 57

are unique among prokaryotes because of the presence of sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.

Question 58

Anti- influenza drugs are effective at any stage of the disease.

Question 59

BCG vaccine is composed of attenuated M. tuberculosis.

Question 60

Otitis media is more common in adults than children because of differences in the anatomy of the head.

Question 61

Describe the pathogenesis of tuberculosis, paying special attention to the characteristics of M. tuberculosis that make it so pathogenic.

Question 62

Explain the necessity of producing a new vaccine for each year's flu season.

Question 63

Why is immunity to the common cold so hard to develop, either naturally or through vaccines?

Question 64

Describe the various ways in which the respiratory system is protected from invasion by pathogens.

Question 65

Compare and contrast pneumococcal and mycoplasmal pneumonia.