Deck 3: Cell Division and Chromosome Heredity

Question 1

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell actively transcribe and translate protein products necessary for normal cellular structure and function while not advancing the cell cycle?

A) Gap 1 phase
B) Gap 2 phase
C) Interphase
D) Metaphase
E) Gap 0 phase

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which structure is responsible for chromosome movement during cell division?

A) kinetochore microtubules
B) nuclear envelope
C) synaptonemal complex
D) cell membrane
E) metaphase plate

Answer 2

A

Question 3

A dihybrid has the genotype AaBb. After a normal mitotic division into two daughters cells, one daughter cell will have the genotype and the other will have the genotype .

A) Ab; aB
B) Aa; Bb
C) AaBb; AaBb
D) AABB; aabb
E) AB; ab

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The five substages of M phase are designed to accomplish two main goals: equal partitioning between the two cells of chromosomal material and of cytoplasmic contents. What are these two processes called?

A) Depolymerization and Disjunction
B) Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis
C) Nondisjunction and Centrosomes
D) Kinetochore and Cohesion
E) There are not specific names for these process and are best described as in the question.

Question 5

Which organelle migrates during M phase to form the two opposite poles of the dividing cell and acts as the source of the spindle fiber microtubules?

A) centrosome
B) chromosome
C) chiasmata
D) kinetochore
E) centromere

Question 6

A eukaryotic cell is diploid and contains 6 chromosomes during G1 phase. If the cell undergoes mitosis, how many daughter cells would be produced, and how many chromosomes would each one contain?

A) 2 daughter cells with 12 chromosomes each
B) 2 daughter cells with 3 chromosomes each
C) 4 daughter cells with 12 chromosomes each
D) 2 daughter cells with 6 chromosomes each
E) 4 daughter cells with 6 chromosomes each

Question 7

Why might a parent cell undergo mitosis in a multi- cellular tissue?

A) Cyclins are not phosphorylated.
B) Parent cell needs to replace nearby cells that have performed apoptosis.
C) Parent cell is damaged and needs to perform apoptosis.
D) Growth factor concentrations are low.
E) Parent cell needs to out- compete other cells around it for resources.

Question 8

A single chromosome at metaphase contains how many DNA molecules?

A) two
B) four
C) one
D) more than four
E) impossible to determine

Question 9

The separation of sister chromatids during anaphase I of mitosis is known as chromosome .

A) disjunction
B) cytokinesis
C) synapsis
D) crossing over
E) karyokinesis

Question 10

You discover a new species of snail, Biologica terificia, and find that its haploid number is 4 (n = 4). The somatic cells of Biologica terificia are diploid. How many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of the snail in G1 phase?

A) 4
B) 16
C) 8
D) too many to count

Question 11

Certain kinds of cells (e.g., some cells in the eyes and bones) mature and differentiate into a state in which they have a specialized function but do not divide or progress through the cell cycle. These cells are "stuck" in which stage?

A) G0
B) S
C) G1
D) M phase
E) G2

Question 12

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell initiate replication of its nuclear DNA?

A) Gap 1 phase
B) Metaphase
C) Gap 2 phase
D) Synthesis phase
E) Gap 0 phase

Question 13

What is the role of the centromere during cell division?

A) Attach one sister chromatid to another sister chromatid.
B) Hold together the DNA of a single chromatid.
C) Attach two chromosomes to each other.
D) Serve as the initiation site for DNA synthesis.

Question 14

During mitotic cell division, if chromosomal material is improperly divided between the two daughter cells, one cell could receive three copies of a chromosome, and the other cell could receive only one. This is likely due to a defect in which process?

A) crossing over
B) cytokinesis
C) homologous recombination
D) karyokinesis
E) synapsis

Question 15

Tumor suppressors are genes whose protein products regulate cell cycle checkpoints and .

A) promote advancement of the cell cycle
B) activate proto- oncogenes
C) block progression of the cell cycle
D) prevent apoptosis in normal cells
E) phosphorylate proteins involved in the cell cycle

Question 16

Vinblastine is a commonly used chemotherapy drug that acts by interfering with the assembly of microtubules. How does it likely target cancer cells?

A) by inhibiting DNA synthesis
B) by disrupting mitotic spindle formation
C) by inhibiting protein kinases
D) by denaturing myosin and preventing the cleavage furrow from forming
E) by suppressing cyclins

Question 17

Mitosis is a process of cell division that results in .

A) two unique daughter cells
B) two identical daughter cells
C) four unique daughter cells
D) three identical daughter cells
E) four identical daughter cells

Question 18

During prophase of mitosis, a diploid cell with 2 nuclear chromosomes has how many sister chromatids and how many contiguous DNA molecules?

A) 4 sister chromatids and 4 DNA molecules
B) 4 sister chromatids and 2 DNA molecules
C) 2 sister chromatids and 2 DNA molecules
D) 8 sister chromatids and 4 DNA molecules
E) 2 sister chromatids and 4 DNA molecules

Question 19

If a cell begins to divide rapidly (as often seen in wound repair), what would you expect to happen to the timing of G1 phase?

A) It would require less time than other cells.
B) It would require more time than other cells.
C) The time it would require would depend on what other cells in the vicinity are doing.
D) It would require the same amount of time as any other cell.
E) It is not possible to say what would happen to the timing of G1 phase.

Question 20

After which stage or phase of the cell cycle does cytokinesis occur?

A) G1
B) G2
C) M phase
D) S
E) G0

Question 21

Crossing white- eyed male Drosophila to red- eyed females produces all red- eyed F1 offspring, but the one half of the males in the F2 generation are white- eyed. What concept best explains this observation of eye color?

A) X- linked inheritance
B) autosomal dominance
C) independent assortment
D) random mutation
E) crossing over

Question 22

The binding of nonsister chromatids by a synaptonemal complex draws the homologs into close contact so that what process can occur?

A) synapsis
B) karyokinesis
C) disjunction
D) independent assortment
E) cytokinesis

Question 23

While female and male beetles both contain twenty diploid chromosomes, males have one smaller chromosome than in females. What can be inferred from this observation?

A) Males require fewer genes than females.
B) Crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes.
C) Biological sex is determined by the presence of an X or Y chromosome.
D) The number of autosomal chromosomes varies between gametes.
E) Chromosomes assort independently to determine biological sex.

Question 24

Which of the following cells could be created from a mitotic division but would not be created during a normal meiosis?

A) Cell G
B) Cell H
C) Cell K
D) Cell M
E) Cell P

Question 25

WT yeast (TRP+) can synthesize the amino acid tryptophan and can grow on media plates lacking tryptophan. In contrast, mutant alleles (trp-) block tryptophan synthesis and result in an inability of mutant strains to grow on media lacking tryptophan. A diploid yeast was made through the cross M ADE+ × MATa ade-. Meiosis was induced in the diploid strain to produce an ascus with four haploid spores, which were separated and grown on plates lacking tryptophan. How many spores are expec grow into colonies on the plate?

A) 0
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
E) 2

Question 26

Red- green color blindness is an X- linked recessive disorder. A woman with normal vision whose father was colorblind has children with a man with normal color vision. What is the probability that their first child will be colorblind?

A) 3/4
B) 1/4
C) 1
D) 1/2
E) 0

Question 27

Biological sex in some species, such as Drosophila, is determined by genes present on both the .

A) nuclear and mitochondrial DNA
B) haploid and diploid chromosomes
C) stem and gonad cells
D) prophase and Telophase chromosomes
E) autosomal and sex chromosomes

Question 28

The biological sex of birds and some other mammals can be explained by females containing chromosomes and males containing chromosomes.

A) XY; XX
B) XX; XY
C) X; Y
D) Z; W
E) ZW; ZZ

Question 29

Which of the following represents the chromosomes in a cell at the beginning of meiosis phase 2?

A) Cell G
B) Cell H
C) Cell K
D) Cell M
E) Cell P

Question 30

When cyclin D1 is expressed in normal levels, it stimulates the cell cycle by promoting transition from one cell cycle phase to another. If overexpressed, it can promote cancer by allowing cells to overproliferate. The normal cyclin D1 gene regulates which general cell cycle process?

Question 31

Why might a cell undergo meiosis rather than mitosis?

A) Diploid gametes are effective for asexual reproduction.
B) Haploid gametes can be genetically diverse.
C) Meiosis protects against mutations during reproduction.
D) It is more efficient to perform meiosis than mitosis.
E) Cells that perform meiosis can out- compete cells that perform mitosis.

Question 32

If a trait is X- linked recessive, who would express the trait?

A) females homozygous for the recessive allele and males hemizygous for the recessive allele
B) females homozygous for the dominant allele and males hemizygous for the recessive allele
C) the same proportions of females and males
D) females homozygous for the recessive allele and males hemizygous for the dominant allele
E) heterozygous females and males hemizygous for the dominant allele

Question 33

If a trait is X- linked dominant, who would express the trait?

A) significantly more females than males
B) females homozygous for the dominant allele and males hemizygous for the recessive allele
C) females homozygous for the recessive allele and males hemizygous for the dominant allele
D) females homozygous for the recessive allele and males hemizygous for the recessive allele
E) heterozygous females and males hemizygous for the dominant allele

Question 34

A dihybrid has the genotype AaBb. The diagram depicts the chromosome composition of different cells from the animal. Which of the cells could represent a mature gamete?

A) Cell G
B) Cell H
C) Cell K
D) Cell M
E) Cell P

Question 35

During meiosis I, when does homologous chromosome pairing and recombination occur?

A) prophase I
B) metaphase I
C) pro- metaphase I
D) telophase I
E) anaphase I

Question 36

During prometaphase, microtubules grow from the to attach to the .

A) Nucleolus; Chromosomes
B) Centrioles; Organelles
C) Metaphase plate; Daughter chromosomes
D) Centrosomes; Kinetochores
E) Spindle; Chromatids

Question 37

Contact points between nonsister chromatids that mark the locations of DNA- strand exchange are called .

A) metaphase plates
B) chiasmata
C) synaptonemal complexes
D) kinetochores
E) centrosomes

Question 38

Which dosage compensation mechanism is employed by female placental mammals?

A) X- inactivation
B) X chromosome crossing over
C) synteny
D) X nondisjunction
E) Y- inactivation

Question 39

Chromosomal nondisjunction of the X chromosome in female gametes of humans means that live offspring can include .

A) females with XX, and males with XY or XO
B) females with XX or XXX, and males with XY or XXY
C) females with XX or XXX, and males with XY or XO
D) females with XX or XO, and males with XY or OY
E) females with XX, and males with XY

Question 40

Why are chromosomes more easily visible under a microscope during Metaphase as compared to G2 phase?

A) They become stained by natural pigments in the cell.
B) They are highly condensed in Metaphase.
C) There is twice as much DNA during Metaphase than during G2 phase.
D) Chromosomes are contained in the nucleus during G2 but not during metaphase.
E) Proteins that bind chromosomes during Metaphase are highly visible.

Question 41

How many CHROMOSOMES are found in a human somatic cell nucleus?

Question 42

How many total CHROMATIDS are found in a human somatic cell nucleus during G2 phase?

Question 43

A cell in G1 phase has the option of entering which two phases?

Question 44

How many PAIRS OF HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES are found in a human somatic cell nucleus?

Question 45

The number of chromosomes in as 2n.

Question 46

An individual is heterozygous for a gene at a specific locus. will have the same form of alleles at that locus after S phase.

Question 47

The gametes of the two sexes are often dramatically different in size and morphology. If both gametes have a haploid nucleus, then what do female gametes contain more of?

Question 48

Synapsis initiates formation of a protein bridge called the synaptonemal complex, a
tri- layer protein structure that maintains synapsis by tightly binding nonsister chromatids of _ to one another.

Question 49

What separates in meiosis I to reduce the diploid number (2n) of chromosomes to the haploid number (n)?

Question 50

Females have two copies of the X chromosome, so they can be homozygous or heterozygous for any genes found on the X chromosome. Males have only one copy of the X chromosome. What term is used to describe this inheritance state?

Question 51

What is the short segment of the cell cycle during which genetic material is partitioned equally to two daughter cells?

Question 52

Which protein assures that sister chromatids of each chromosome remain firmly joined and can resist the pull of the kinetochore microtubules?

Question 53

The number of occurrences of which event correlates closely with the number of recombination nodules along each homologous chromosome arm?

Question 54

In meiosis, interphase is followed by two successive rounds of cell division, meiosis I and
II. Meiosis results in four haploid daughter cells because does not occur between the end of telophase I and the start of prophase II.

Question 55

Which term describes any mechanism that compensates for differences in the number of copies of genes due to the different chromosome constitutions of males and females?

Question 56

What is the mammalian transcription factor that elicits a cascade of gene transcription and developmental events that ultimately produce male internal and external structures?

Question 57

Gametes and some species are known as chromosomes contained in their nuclei.

Question 58

What process is used to make mature germ- line cells, or GAMETES?

Question 59

Of the trillions of cells in the human body, most are , the cells that form organs and tissues.

Question 60

At the end of meiosis II, what is produced?

Question 61

Describe how microtubules and cohesion work together to align the chromosomes along the metaphase plate during the process of sister chromatid cohesion.

Question 62

What is the difference between cytokinesis and karyokinesis? Which process needs to be more precise for accurate cell division?

Question 63

Which meiotic division(s) reduce(s) chromosome number (i.e., meiosis I, meiosis II, or both)? Explain your answer.

Question 64

Describe how Mendel's two laws are illustrated by the movement of chromosomes in meiosis.

Question 65

What are three important differences between mitosis and meiosis I?