Deck 18: Practical Applications of Immunology

Question 1

A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patientʹs serum is the

A) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
B) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT

A) live, attenuated viruses.
B) toxoids.
C) antibodies.
D) inactivated viruses.
E) parts of bacterial cells.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)

A) live whole-agent vaccine.
B) conjugated vaccine.
C) subunit vaccine.
D) nucleic acid vaccine.
E) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

A) nucleic acid vaccine
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
C) conjugated vaccine
D) toxoid vaccine
E) subunit vaccine

Question 5

The clumping of test red blood cells indicates a negative test result (no antibodies against the virus in the patientʹs serum) in the

A) precipitation test.
B) indirect agglutination test.
C) direct agglutination test.
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
E) complement-fixation test.

Question 6

Patientʹs serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?

A) hemolysis
B) agglutination
C) hemagglutination
D) complement fixation
E) hemagglutination-inhibition

Question 7

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.

Question 8

A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen -antibody reaction is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.

Question 9

In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?

A) 6
B) 1:6
C) 1:32
D) 32
E) 64

Question 10

A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patientʹs serum is the

A) direct ELISA test.
B) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
C) direct agglutination test.
D) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
E) hemagglutination-inhibition test.

Question 11

Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing?

A) cells producing monoclonal antibodies
B) vaccinated animals
C) vaccinated animals, cells producing monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and cells producing monoclonal antibodies
E) viral cultures

Question 12

Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)

A) antibody response against gram-positive bacteria.
B) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
C) TC cell response.
D) immune complex.
E) dendritic cell proliferation.

Question 13

Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)

A) nucleic acid vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) toxoid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) conjugated vaccine.

Question 14

A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patientʹs throat swab is the

A) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
B) indirect ELISA test.
C) hemagglutination test.
D) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
E) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

Question 15

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.

Question 16

An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test

A) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
B) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
C) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
D) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
E) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.

Question 17

What type of vaccine is the live, weakened measles virus?

A) toxoid vaccine
B) conjugated vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) subunit vaccine
E) attenuated whole-agent vaccine

Question 18

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may have the disease.
D) The patient may have been vaccinated.
E) The patient was near someone who had the disease.

Question 19

Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a womanʹs urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres?

A) neutralization reaction
B) immunofluorescence
C) precipitation reaction
D) direct agglutination reaction
E) indirect agglutination reaction

Question 20

Which of the following is a test to determine a patientʹs blood type by mixing the patientʹs red blood cells with antisera?

A) immunofluorescence
B) precipitation reaction
C) passive agglutination reaction
D) neutralization reaction
E) direct agglutination reaction

Question 21

Table 18.1
Antibody Titer
$$\begin{array} { | l | l | l | l | l | } \hline & \text { Day 1 } & \text { Day } 7 & \text { Day 14 } & \text { Day 21 } \\\hline \text { Patient A } & 0 & 0 & 256 & 512 \\\hline \text { Patient B } & 128 & 256 & 512 & 1024 \\\hline \text { Patient C } & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\\hline \text { Patient D } & 128 & 128 & 128 & 128 \\\hline\end{array}$$

-In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease, as observed by the test results over time?

A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D

Question 22

Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?

A) antigen
B) antibodies against the antigen
C) antihuman immune serum
D) substrate for the enzyme

Question 23

A patientʹs serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti -sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium?

A) No hemolysis occurs.
B) Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.
C) Bacteria fluoresce.
D) Hemolysis occurs.
E) Hemagglutination occurs.

Question 24

Table 18.1
Antibody Titer
$$\begin{array} { | l | l | l | l | l | } \hline & \text { Day 1 } & \text { Day } 7 & \text { Day 14 } & \text { Day 21 } \\\hline \text { Patient A } & 0 & 0 & 256 & 512 \\\hline \text { Patient B } & 128 & 256 & 512 & 1024 \\\hline \text { Patient C } & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\\hline \text { Patient D } & 128 & 128 & 128 & 128 \\\hline\end{array}$$

-In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?

A) Patients A and C
B) Patients A and D
C) Patients B and C
D) Patients C and D
E) Patients A and B

Question 25

A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an)

A) antigen with an antibody.
B) B cell with a T cell.
C) antigen with a B cell.
D) B cell with a myeloma cell.
E) myeloma cell with a virus.

Question 26

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 27

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 28

Isolated and purified hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 29

Figure 18.1

Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(an)

A) negative indirect ELISA test.
B) positive indirect ELISA test.
C) complement fixation test.
D) precipitation test.
E) hemagglutination test.

Question 30

Figure 18.1

Which component in Figure 18.1 came from the patient in this indirect ELISA test?

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e

Question 31

The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step?

A) Culture the hybridoma in a selective medium.
B) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
C) Isolate antibody-producing B cells.
D) Vaccinate a mouse.
E) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.

Question 32

Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they

A) can be produced in large quantities.
B) are highly specific.
C) contain a mixture of antibodies.
D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.
E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture of antibodies.

Question 33

In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patientʹs urine, what is the third step in the test process?

A) enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested is added
B) substrate for the enzyme is added
C) antibody against the drug being tested is added
D) the patientʹs urine sample is diluted

Question 34

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)

A) nucleic acid vaccine.
B) conjugated vaccine.
C) subunit vaccine.
D) toxoid vaccine.
E) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

Question 35

Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n)

A) immunosuppressive.
B) monoclonal antibody.
C) toxoid.
D) nucleoside analog.
E) vaccine.

Question 36

Table 18.1
Antibody Titer
$$\begin{array} { | l | l | l | l | l | } \hline & \text { Day 1 } & \text { Day } 7 & \text { Day 14 } & \text { Day 21 } \\\hline \text { Patient A } & 0 & 0 & 256 & 512 \\\hline \text { Patient B } & 128 & 256 & 512 & 1024 \\\hline \text { Patient C } & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\\hline \text { Patient D } & 128 & 128 & 128 & 128 \\\hline\end{array}$$

-In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?

A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D

Question 37

Live weakened polio virus can be used directly in a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

Question 38

A vaccine against HIV proteins made by a genetically -engineered vaccinia virus that has infected a eukaryotic cell line is a(n)

A) toxoid vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) nucleic acid vaccine.
E) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

Question 39

Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patientʹs saliva?

A) immunofluorescence
B) precipitation reaction
C) passive agglutination reaction
D) neutralization reaction
E) direct agglutination reaction

Question 40

Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?

A) neutralization
B) agglutination
C) complement fixation
D) indirect ELISA
E) direct fluorescent-antibody

Question 41

Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins.

Question 42

In a vaccine preparation, the term ʺattenuatedʺ means that the agent does NOT replicate.

Question 43

In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose the fungal disease histoplasmosis, a patientʹs serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. In this test process, what is the most likely identity of the material in the second well?

A) red blood cells
B) a purified fungal antigen
C) a purified protozoan antigen
D) antibodies
E) entire fungal cells

Question 44

Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?

A) It is preventable by vaccination.
B) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide.
C) It is a serious disease.
D) The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
E) Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and death.

Question 45

In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patientʹs serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this?

A) a precipitation reaction
B) a direct ELISA test
C) a complement-fixation test
D) an agglutination reaction
E) an indirect ELISA test

Question 46

Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.

Question 47

An injection of ʺnakedʺ DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.

Question 48

Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.

Question 49

A highly specific diagnostic test will be unlikely to indicate a positive result if a specimen being tested is a true negative.

Question 50

Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies?

A) neutralization
B) complement fixation
C) precipitation
D) flow cytometry
E) agglutination

Question 51

Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses.

Question 52

Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens.

Question 53

A positive complement-fixation test is indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test.

Question 54

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?

A) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
B) They require few or no booster immunizations.
C) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection.
D) They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
E) They elicit lifelong immunity.

Question 55

The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA.