Deck 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease

Question 1

Resident biota of the gastrointestinal tract include ______.

A) Streptococcus
B) Bacteroides
C) Lactobacillus
D) Haemophilus
E) All of the choices are correct.

Answer 1

All of the choices are correct.

Question 2

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are ______.

A) in food
B) the patient's own normal biota
C) on fomites
D) in the air
E) transmitted from one person to another

Answer 2

the patient's own normal biota

Question 3

Normal biota includes each of the following except ______.

A) bacteria
B) fungi
C) protozoans
D) viruses
E) All of the choices are correct.

Answer 3

All of the choices are correct.

Question 4

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ______.

A) opportunistic pathogens
B) normal biota
C) indigenous biota
D) true pathogens
E) micropathogens

Question 5

An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called ______.

A) exogenous
B) an exotoxin
C) an enterotoxin
D) endogenous
E) axenic

Question 6

Opportunistic pathogens _______.

A) cause disease in every individual
B) cause disease in compromised individuals
C) are always pathogens
D) have well-developed virulence factors

Question 7

Resident biota are found in/on the ______.

A) skin
B) mouth
C) nasal passages
D) large intestine
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 8

Which genus is resident biota of the mouth, large intestine, and within the vagina from puberty to menopause?

A) Lactobacillus
B) Treponema
C) Haemophilus
D) Escherichia
E) Clostridium

Question 9

The effect of bene?cial microbes of normal biota against invading microbes is called ______.

A) microbial antagonism
B) endogenous infection
C) infectious disease
D) axenic
E) gnotobiotism

Question 10

Which genus is the most common resident biota of mouth surfaces?

A) Lactobacillus
B) Streptococcus
C) Haemophilus
D) Escherichia
E) Mycobacterium

Question 11

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the ______.

A) respiratory system
B) gastrointestinal system
C) urinary system
D) genital system
E) skin

Question 12

TORCH is an acronym that represents the most common ______.

A) genera of resident biota
B) sexually transmitted infections
C) portals of entry
D) vectors
E) infections of the fetus and neonate

Question 13

Which of the following is not correct terminology used for resident biota?

A) Pathogenic biota
B) Normal biota
C) Indigenous biota
D) Normal microbiota
E) Commensals

Question 14

Each of the following is inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except _______.

A) the birth process through the birth canal
B) bottle feeding
C) breastfeeding
D) contact with hospital staff
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 15

An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called ______.

A) exogenous
B) an exotoxin
C) an enterotoxin
D) endogenous
E) axenic

Question 16

All of the following genera are considered resident biota of skin sites except ______.

A) Escherichia
B) Staphylococcus
C) Corynebacterium
D) Micrococcus
E) Candida

Question 17

Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?

A) Genetic defects in immunity
B) Physical and mental stress
C) Strong, healthy body
D) Chemotherapy
E) Old age

Question 18

The term infection refers to _______.

A) microorganisms colonizing the body
B) contact with microorganisms
C) contact with pathogens
D) pathogens penetrating host defenses

Question 19

Based on new information from the Human Microbiome Project, the human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota _______.

A) before birth, in utero
B) during and immediately after birth
C) when a child ?rst goes to school
D) when an infant gets its ?rst infectious disease
E) during puberty

Question 20

The minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed is termed a/an ______.

A) virulence factor
B) indigenous biota
C) infectious dose
D) endotoxin
E) minimal dose

Question 21

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of _______.

A) adhesive factors
B) exotoxins
C) hemolysins
D) antiphagocytic factors
E) exoenzymes

Question 22

The stage of an infectious disease when speci?c signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the ______.

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion

Question 23

Which of the following is not a structure used for bacterial adhesion?

A) Fimbriae
B) Surface proteins
C) Specialized receptors
D) Adhesive slime or capsules
E) Cilia

Question 24

The su?x -osis means ______.

A) blood
B) a disease or morbid process
C) an in?ammation
D) tumor
E) pertaining to

Question 25

Mucinase has the greatest effect on the ______.

A) respiratory system
B) gastrointestinal system
C) urinary system
D) genital system
E) skin

Question 26

The su?x -emia means ______.

A) blood
B) a disease or morbid process
C) an in?ammation
D) tumor
E) pertaining to

Question 27

Lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls is called ______.

A) exotoxin
B) endotoxin
C) enterotoxin
D) leukocidin
E) hemolysin

Question 28

Which of the following is the endotoxin?

A) Hemolysin
B) Hyaluronidase
C) Streptokinase
D) Collagenase
E) Lipopolysaccharide

Question 29

Virulence factors include all of the following except ______.

A) capsules
B) ribosome
C) exoenzymes
D) endotoxin
E) exotoxin

Question 30

An endotoxin is ______.

A) secreted by pathogenic organisms
B) indicative of gram-negative bacterial infection
C) secreted by gram-positive organisms
D) indicative of fungal infections
E) indicative of viral infections

Question 31

Various bacterial enzymes that dissolve ?brin clots are ______.

A) coagulases
B) mucinases
C) keratinases
D) kinases
E) hyaluronidases

Question 32

Exotoxins ______.

A) are secreted by pathogenic organisms
B) are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms
C) are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms
D) cause more damage than endotoxins
E) are host speci?c

Question 33

The su?x -itis means ______.

A) blood
B) a disease or morbid process
C) an in?ammation
D) tumor
E) pertaining to

Question 34

Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor?

A) Secretion of slime
B) Production of leukocidins
C) Adhering to the host
D) Secretion of a capsule
E) Ability to survive intracellularly

Question 35

Enterotoxins are ______.

A) virulence factors
B) toxins that target the intestines
C) proteins
D) exotoxins
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 36

Which term-de?nition pair is mismatched?

A) Fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B) Capsule - antiphagocytic factor
C) Coagulase - dissolves ?brin clots
D) Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E) Hemolysins - damage red blood cells

Question 37

Hyaluronidase is a virulence factor in ______.

A) amoebic dysentery
B) ringworm
C) clostridia
D) cold virus
E) diphtheria

Question 38

Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Adhesion
C) Encapsulation
D) Margination
E) Exocytosis

Question 39

Keratinase has the greatest effect on the ______.

A) respiratory system
B) gastrointestinal system
C) urinary system
D) genital system
E) skin

Question 40

Exotoxins are _______.

A) proteins secreted by living bacterial cells
B) only released after a cell is damaged or lysed
C) antiphagocytic factors
D) secretions that always target nervous tissue
E) lipopolysaccharides

Question 41

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the ______.

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion

Question 42

Which of the following is a mismatched term and description?

A) Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
B) Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
C) Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
D) Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
E) Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

Question 43

Some diseases can cause long-term or permanent damage in the patient termed ______.

A) edema
B) sequelae
C) granulomas
D) abscesses
E) swollen lymph nodes

Question 44

Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease?

A) Removal of blood
B) Urogenital tract and feces
C) Coughing and sneezing
D) Skin
E) All of these choices are normal exit portals.

Question 45

A sign is _______.

A) an objective indication of disease
B) a subjective indication of disease
C) measurable by health care personnel
D) malaise and body aches
E) an objective indication of disease that is measurable by health care personnel

Question 46

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a/an ______.

A) syndrome
B) symptom
C) sign
D) pathology
E) in?ammation

Question 47

Which of the following is an example of sequelae?

A) Headache from meningitis
B) Di?culty swallowing from streptococcal infection
C) Arthritis from Lyme disease
D) Diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection

Question 48

A symptom is _______.

A) an objective indication of disease
B) a subjective indication of disease
C) measurable by health care personnel
D) a temperature

Question 49

Reservoirs include ______.

A) humans
B) animals
C) soil
D) water
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 50

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a/an ______.

A) syndrome
B) symptom
C) sign
D) pathology
E) in?ammation

Question 51

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are ______.

A) fomites
B) aerosols
C) mechanical vectors
D) droplet nuclei
E) biological vectors

Question 52

Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

A) elevation
B) stabilization
C) decrease
D) abnormal production

Question 53

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the ______.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 54

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of ______.

A) toxemia
B) in?ammation
C) sequelae
D) a syndrome
E) latency

Question 55

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a ________.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 56

Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ________.

A) syndromes
B) malaise
C) in?ammation
D) asymptomatic
E) secondary infections

Question 57

An intermediary inanimate object from which an infectious agent is acquired is termed a _______.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir

Question 58

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a _______.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 59

The time from when pathogen ?rst enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms ?rst appear is the ______.

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion

Question 60

The term _______ refers to the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.

A) bacteremia
B) septicemia
C) viremia
D) toxemia

Question 61

Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus?

A) Vertical
B) Direct
C) Vector
D) Droplets
E) Fomites

Question 62

When would Koch's postulates be utilized?

A) To determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab
B) To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
C) To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
D) To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
E) Whenever the scienti?c method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem

Question 63

Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a/an ______.

A) intoxication
B) toxemia
C) hemolysin
D) pandemic
E) infection

Question 64

Carriers that shed and transmit pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease are called ______ carriers.

A) asymptomatic
B) passive
C) incubation
D) chronic
E) convalescent

Question 65

What is one goal of the Human Microbiome Project?

A) To sequence the DNA of all microorganisms
B) To study the prevalence of disease
C) To study microorganisms in an arti?cial habitat
D) To provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease
E) To elucidate genetically linked diseases

Question 66

Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the handling of patients and body substances?

A) Mask and gloves
B) Proper disposal of needles
C) Healthcare worker with active, open lesions handling patients
D) Hand washing
E) Sterilizing or disinfection of dental hand pieces

Question 67

The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the _______.

A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B) World Health Organization
C) National Institutes of Health
D) United States Department of Agriculture
E) Infection Control Committee

Question 68

All communicable diseases ______.

A) are contagious
B) only occur in animals
C) are caused by microorganisms or their products
D) are caused by vectors
E) involve viruses as the pathogen

Question 69

The dried residues of ?ne droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are ________.

A) fomites
B) aerosols
C) mechanical vectors
D) droplet nuclei
E) biological vectors

Question 70

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is referred to as ______.

A) epidemic
B) endemic
C) pandemic
D) sporadic
E) chronic

Question 71

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a de?ned population is ______.

A) pathology
B) clinical microbiology
C) medicine
D) immunology
E) epidemiology

Question 72

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a ______.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 73

A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in thetechnologist, the transmission route is _______.

A) direct
B) fomite
C) vehicle
D) droplet nuclei
E) aerosol

Question 74

Which of the following is not true regarding healthcare-associated infections?

A) These infections are only transmitted by medical personnel.
B) These infections often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.
C) The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent.
D) Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents.
E) Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.

Question 75

An infection spread between animals and humans is a ______.

A) secondary infection
B) sequela
C) healthcare-associated infection
D) zoonosis

Question 76

The number of persons a?icted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate.

A) morbidity
B) mortality
C) incidence
D) endemic
E) pandemic

Question 77

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ______ rate.

A) morbidity
B) mortality
C) incidence
D) endemic
E) pandemic

Question 78

Carriers that shed and transmit pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease are called ______ carriers.

A) asymptomatic
B) passive
C) incubation
D) chronic
E) convalescent

Question 79

Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?

A) Fomites
B) Water
C) Droplet nuclei
D) Aerosols
E) Droplets

Question 80

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a speci?c period of time compared with the healthy population is the ______.

A) mortality rate
B) morbidity rate
C) incidence rate
D) prevalence rate
E) epidemic rate