Deck 2: Prenatal Development and the Newborn Period

Question 1

Scientific evidence has demonstrated that

A) when saccharin was injected into amniotic fluid, the mothers' urine showed that the fetuses ingested more amniotic fluid when it had been sweetened.
B) when offered chocolate milk versus orange juice, preterm infants drank more chocolate milk.
C) fetuses smiled more when fed a sugar solution than when fed a saline solution.
D) the idea that fetuses prefer sweet flavors is merely an assumption that was made based on research conducted with newborns.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Michelle is pregnant with her first child. Which of the following is the MOST likely threat to prenatal development?

A) illegal drugs
B) miscarriage
C) alcohol
D) herpes

Answer 2

B

Question 3

A mad scientist wishes to create a nonhuman animal with a tongue on its back. Presuming that the scientist believes in phylogenetic continuity, when would the scientist be MOST likely to perform the cell transplant?

A) early in the fetal period
B) late in the germinal period
C) early in the embryonic period
D) early in the germinal period

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The study of children born in the Netherlands during World War II demonstrated which finding about prenatal malnutrition?

A) It is difficult to separate the effects of malnutrition from the other effects of poverty.
B) The effects of malnutrition were most severe when the malnutrition began late in the pregnancy.
C) The effects of malnutrition can be eliminated if the baby has adequate nutrition starting at birth.
D) Fetal programming related to metabolism impacted later health and weight in adulthood.

Question 5

Which factor is NOT a reason for the high number of surgical deliveries in the United States?

A) multiple births
B) convenience scheduling
C) maternal obesity
D) paternal request

Question 6

Which condition is NOT associated with poverty?

A) poor nutrition
B) drug abuse
C) environmental hazards
D) improved prenatal care

Question 7

How many sperm are ejaculated during sexual intercourse?

A) 200 million
B) 500 million
C) 200
D) 500

Question 8

Erin is a new mother and is concerned about her infant's crying. What can you tell Erin to help ease her concerns?

A) Infant crying peaks at about 6 weeks of age.
B) Infant crying tends to be worse in the morning.
C) All newborn crying is a result of discomfort.
D) None of these statements is true.

Question 9

Which pattern of maternal alcohol consumption is considered acceptable in terms of avoiding harmful effects?

A) drinking several drinks over a quick period of time, only a few times during pregnancy
B) drinking one and only one drink per day
C) drinking large amounts of alcohol on a frequent basis
D) There is no acceptable use of maternal alcohol consumption.

Question 10

Regarding the flexibility of a cell's function during the embryonic and fetal periods, cells are

A) initially flexible and then become inflexible.
B) initially inflexible and then become more flexible.
C) flexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.
D) inflexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.

Question 11

Adam and Andrea are fraternal twins. Which statement explains how they formed?

A) They developed from one fertilized egg that divided into three different cell masses at the moment of conception.
B) They were formed when two different eggs were released from the ovary into the fallopian tube and were fertilized.
C) They were formed with two different sperm entering the same egg.
D) Fraternal and maternal twins are formed exactly the same way.

Question 12

Which sense is LEAST stimulated in the uterus?

A) taste
B) sight
C) hearing
D) smell

Question 13

In the United States, what percentage of clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage?

A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 35%

Question 14

Which statement about the development of sex organs is TRUE?

A) If the mother produces testosterone, then the fetus will develop male organs; if the mother produces estrogen, then the fetus will develop female sex organs.
B) If the fetus produces testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces estrogen, then it will develop female sex organs.
C) If the fetus produces high levels of testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces moderate levels of testosterone, then it will develop female sex organs.
D) If the fetus produces androgens, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces no androgens, then it will develop female sex organs.

Question 15

At 8 months gestation, a fetus hears a phone ring repeatedly and is likely to experience _____ over the course of several minutes.

A) initial changes in heart rate, with decreased changes as the ringing continues
B) initial changes in heart rate, with increased changes as the ringing continues
C) no changes in heart rate initially but increased changes as the ringing continues
D) no changes in heart rate throughout the ringing

Question 16

Roughly _____ of women experience postpartum depression.

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%

Question 17

Swaddling is considered a(n)

A) form of child abuse.
B) effective method of soothing a crying baby.
C) productive way to encourage a newborn's first breath.
D) type of colic.

Question 18

Jacquelyne is a new parent and is having a hard time soothing her newborn when he cries. Which action is LEAST likely to soothe her crying baby?

A) giving the infant a taste of sugar
B) showing the infant a colorful picture
C) patting the infant repetitively on the back
D) swaddling the infant in a blanket

Question 19

Which statement about apoptosis is TRUE?

A) Apoptosis is a necessary part of development.
B) Apoptosis signals there might be a problem with prenatal development.
C) Apoptosis explains why stem cells are sought after by researchers.
D) Apoptosis is also called cell migration.

Question 20

Smoking by pregnant women does NOT contribute to _____ in the unborn child.

A) decreased IQ
B) increased risk of SIDS
C) increased risk of FASD
D) slowed fetal growth

Question 21

Once sperm have entered the vagina, how many typically get close to the egg?

A) one or two
B) approximately 200
C) hundreds of thousands
D) millions

Question 22

Which is the BEST advice for parents regarding how quickly they should respond to their infant's cries?

A) They should respond quickly to all the infant's cries, as immediate response will instill confidence in the infant.
B) They should respond slowly to all the infant's cries so that the infant will learn to regulate her or his crying.
C) They should respond quickly to severe distress, but less quickly to minor upset.
D) They should respond quickly to minor upset, but less quickly to severe distress.

Question 23

David and Dwayne are identical twins. What does this mean in terms of their genetic makeup?

A) The DNA from their mother is the same but differs in terms of what they received from their father.
B) The DNA from their father is the same but differs in terms of what they received from their mother.
C) They have inherited different DNA from both of their parents.
D) They have exactly the same DNA.

Question 24

For which fetal behavior is there no clear explanation?

A) breathing movements
B) hiccups
C) swallowing
D) moving arms and legs

Question 25

Which statement about newborn sleep is TRUE?

A) Newborns continue to get visual stimulation through their closed eyelids.
B) Newborns spend more time than adults do in non-REM sleep.
C) Newborns may be able to learn while asleep.
D) All of these statements are true.

Question 26

Colic may be associated with issues with the newborn's _____ system.

A) limbic
B) nervous
C) respiratory
D) digestive

Question 27

Which statement about the timing of effects of teratogens is FALSE?

A) The sensitive period for the development of the external genitalia occurs prior to the sensitive period for the heart.
B) The sensitive periods for the central nervous system and the heart are the same.
C) Exposure to teratogens during the fetal period is likely to lead to major structural defects.
D) There is no sensitive period in relation to the timing of effects of teratogens.

Question 28

The teratogenic effect of which substance can BEST be characterized as a sleeper effect?

A) DES
B) thalidomide
C) cigarette smoke
D) alcohol

Question 29

Researchers working on regenerative medicine are interested in early embryonic stem cells because of their

A) developmental flexibility.
B) genetic makeup.
C) size.
D) specialized function.

Question 30

Cephalocaudal development refers to the tendency for development to take place from _____ to _____.

A) head; body
B) body; head
C) inside; outside
D) outside; inside

Question 31

How do childbirth practices in Bali differ from those in the United States?

A) Americans place less emphasis on the immediate social integration of the newborn than do the Balinese.
B) The Balinese tend to have a greater level of medical intervention than do Americans.
C) Balinese women know little about childbirth prior to their own experience of it, in comparison with American women, who tend to be well informed.
D) Americans tend to have more friends and relatives at the birth than do the Balinese.

Question 32

Which statement is TRUE regarding antidepressants?

A) Antidepressant medications do not benefit those suffering from depression.
B) Treatment for depression during pregnancy can reduce the risk of postpartum depression.
C) Antidepressant medications are not harmful to the developing fetus.
D) Around 15% of pregnant women take antidepressant medications.

Question 33

Which event is thought to be apoptosis?

A) splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B) loss of cells between the ridges on the hand plate
C) movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D) specialization of eye cells

Question 34

Which sound(s) does the fetus hear?

A) intonation and pattern of the mother's speech
B) voices of people talking to the mother
C) blood pumping through the mother's vascular system
D) maternal sounds, such as her heartbeat, breathing, and digestion

Question 35

Stem cells

A) have varying genetic makeups.
B) contain half the genetic material of the individual.
C) do not have a fixed function.
D) have stable genetic makeups.

Question 36

Mothers whose diet was high in Lake Michigan fish had babies with an increased likelihood of

A) Minamata disease.
B) hearing loss.
C) a small head.
D) limb deformity.

Question 37

Which statement about intervention programs aimed at helping low-birth-weight babies is TRUE?

A) The success of the intervention is unrelated to the initial health status of the infant.
B) The more risks the infant endures, the more successful the intervention will likely be.
C) The positive results are especially clear for children who were relatively heavier at birth.
D) Most intervention programs produce large gains.

Question 38

Marcy is learning about maternal influences on fetal health. Which maternal characteristic does NOT tend to have a negative impact on the health of the fetus?

A) low socioeconomic status
B) malnutrition
C) genital herpes
D) immature eggs

Question 39

The term "fetal programming" means

A) individual differences in teratogenic effects that occur as a result of genetic differences.
B) prenatal learning of sounds, tastes, and smells.
C) genetic differences in ability to learn prenatally.
D) the later emergence of effects of the prenatal period.

Question 40

Infant mortality rates have been _____ for decades and across cultural contexts.

A) higher for girls than for boys
B) roughly the same
C) unstable
D) higher for boys than for girls

Question 41

Francine is pregnant and is concerned about premature birth and low birth weight. Which factor does she NOT have to worry about?

A) cocaine use
B) malnutrition
C) cigarette smoking
D) healthy nutrition

Question 42

By the _____ week of prenatal development, the external genitalia are developed.

A) 4th
B) 6th
C) 8th
D) 16th

Question 43

The nose and the mouth are almost fully formed during the _____ week of prenatal development.

A) 4th
B) 6th
C) 8th
D) 10th

Question 44

For teratogens that show a dose-response relation

A) any level of exposure to the teratogen causes an equivalent likelihood of a defect.
B) the greater the exposure to the teratogen, the greater the likelihood of a defect.
C) the greater the exposure to the teratogen, the lesser the likelihood of a defect.
D) detrimental effects are seen only at very high exposure levels.

Question 45

Babies born into poverty are more likely than are other babies to experience all EXCEPT

A) low birth weight.
B) SIDS.
C) death in the first year of life.
D) healthy nutrition.

Question 46

Laura and Mark are new parents whose baby cries for 3 to 4 hours a day for no apparent reason. They have had their baby examined by a pediatrician, who was unable to find any medical reason for the excessive crying. Laura and Mark's baby appears to be suffering from

A) cocaine withdrawal.
B) neglect.
C) colic.
D) fetal alcohol syndrome.

Question 47

Which statement about environmental pollutants is TRUE?

A) There is no evidence that environmental pollutants can impair prenatal development.
B) Only pollutants that are ingested can impair prenatal development.
C) Only pollutants that pass through the respiratory system can impair prenatal development.
D) Environmental pollutants can have significant and sometimes disastrous consequences on fetal and child development.

Question 48

Regarding amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, newborns spend

A) proportionately more time in REM sleep than do adults.
B) proportionately more time in non-REM sleep than do adults.
C) proportionately the same time in REM and non-REM sleep as do adults, though they differ from adults on the total amount of sleep.
D) approximately the same time in REM sleep as do adolescents.

Question 49

Forms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder include

A) fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) fetal alcohol effects.
C) both fetal alcohol disease and fetal alcohol syndrome.
D) both fetal alcohol syndrome and fetal alcohol effects.

Question 50

Epigenetics can be considered the notion that

A) prenatal development begins with a new miniature individual already preformed.
B) new structures and functions emerge throughout prenatal development.
C) prenatal development begins in the center of the body of the new individual.
D) Eve was created out of Adam's rib.

Question 51

Which condition is a characteristic of REM sleep?

A) deep sleep state
B) regular breathing
C) absence of eye movements
D) irregular heart rate

Question 52

Recent research has demonstrated a link between the development of schizophrenia and maternal contraction of which disease in the first trimester?

A) cytomegalovirus
B) rubella
C) genital herpes
D) influenza

Question 53

Roughly _____ of couples experience recurrent miscarriages.

A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 9%

Question 54

Marla smoked marijuana while pregnant. This behavior can affect her fetus's

A) learning and memory after birth.
B) facial development.
C) head size.
D) neural tube development.

Question 55

Which adjective describes a characteristic of the placenta?

A) transparent
B) watery
C) watertight
D) semipermeable

Question 56

How many chromosome pairs do gametes contain?

A) 13
B) 23
C) 49
D) 92

Question 57

The fetal behavior of swallowing is thought to

A) continually clean the internal organs as they develop.
B) promote the normal development of the palate.
C) be somewhat harmful to the development of the intestines.
D) be one of the earliest prenatal movements.

Question 58

_____ can be used as an intervention for low-birth-weight infants.

A) Physical contact
B) Auditory stimulation
C) Visual stimulation
D) Olfactory stimulation

Question 59

Which statement(s) about cultural goals regarding childbirth is/are TRUE?
Statement A: All cultures aim to protect the survival and health of both mother and baby.
Statement B: All cultures want to ensure the social integration of the new person.
Statement C: All cultures have similar childbirth practices.

A) statements A and C only
B) statement C only
C) statements A and B only
D) statements B and C only

Question 60

Which statement about the rate of prenatal development is TRUE?

A) Earlier development takes place at a more rapid pace than later development.
B) Later development takes place at a more rapid pace than earlier development.
C) The pace of development remains relatively continuous.
D) Development begins slowly, speeds up, and then slows down again.

Question 61

Brenda is 35 years old and pregnant with her first child. She is NOT at greater risk for

A) fetal chromosomal abnormalities.
B) birth complications.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) fetal death.

Question 62

Lenae is a newborn. She is likely to prefer to listen to

A) another woman's voice over her mothers' voice.
B) her mothers' language over another language.
C) novel stories rather than familiar stories.
D) Newborns show no auditory preferences.

Question 63

If the theory presented in the text about newborn sleep states is accurate, in which newborn would a decrease in REM sleep be MOST likely to be seen?

A) Baby Emma, who is deprived of visual stimulation during the day
B) Baby Elijah, who is provided with a high level of extra visual stimulation during the day
C) Baby Sofia, who is deprived of auditory stimulation during the day
D) Baby Manny, who is provided with a high level of extra auditory stimulation during the day

Question 64

What advice should be given to expectant parents who are interested in educating their child in a foreign language and classical literature before birth?

A) Fetuses have no ability to learn anything while in the womb; thus, any talking, singing, or reading you do will not be remembered by the fetus after birth.
B) Although your child may come to recognize and even prefer the patterns of the language and literature he or she is exposed to while in the womb, babies are unable to hear specific words or learn any kind of factual knowledge while in the womb.
C) You will give your child a sufficient head start if you pipe foreign language and classical literature recordings into the womb.
D) If you want your child to become fluent in a foreign language and appreciate literature, you must start before the child is born.

Question 65

Cousins Chloe and Emma have not seen each other since they were children. Each woman now has a 4-week-old infant, and the two women and their babies are reunited at a family gathering. The two babies are napping in the same room when Chloe's baby bangs her leg on the crib and begins to cry. In this situation, it is MOST likely that Chloe and Emma will both

A) think that the crying baby is their own and be unable to identify whether the baby is hungry or in pain.
B) know that the crying baby is Chloe's and be unable to identify whether the baby is hungry or in pain.
C) think that the crying baby is their own, but Chloe will know that the baby is in pain.
D) know that the crying baby is Chloe's, and Chloe will know that the baby is in pain.

Question 66

What do the countries with lower infant mortality rates than that of the United States have in common?

A) guaranteed prenatal care at low or minimal cost for pregnant women
B) low levels of poverty
C) more advanced medical care than that in the United States
D) more pre-pregnancy education than that in the United States

Question 67

The _____ operates as a protective buffer for the developing fetus.

A) umbilical cord
B) amniotic fluid
C) neural tube
D) placenta

Question 68

The EARLIEST time at which fetal habituation has been observed is _____ weeks.

A) 16
B) 25
C) 30
D) 37

Question 69

Infants tend to prefer _____ based on prenatal experiences.

A) loud sounds
B) bland flavors
C) flowery smells
D) sweet tastes

Question 70

The neural tube is a groove formed in the top layer of differentiated cells in the embryo that eventually becomes the

A) internal organs.
B) brain and spinal cord.
C) digestive system.
D) inner layers of skin.

Question 71

Zora and Jenny are twins. Zora is born weighing 4.5 pounds, and Jenny is born weighing 5.5 pounds. Which statement BEST characterizes Zora and Jenny's chances of completing high school, based on the research on low-birth-weight children?

A) Zora and Jenny are equally likely to complete high school.
B) Zora is more likely to complete high school than is Jenny.
C) Jenny is more likely to complete high school than is Zora.
D) The likelihood of Zora and Jenny completing high school cannot be predicted based on research on low-birth-weight children.

Question 72

Which statement about the "survival of the fittest" principle and conception is TRUE?

A) This principle applies only to the process of egg release from the fallopian tube, not to the other processes involved in conception.
B) The eggs that manage to reach the sperm are likely to be healthy, as eggs with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the sperm.
C) The sperm that manage to reach the egg is likely to be healthy, as sperm with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the egg.
D) This principle does not come into play until a child is born.

Question 73

In general, prenatal development occurs in such a manner that areas close to the _____ develop earlier than do areas farther away from it.

A) spinal cord
B) heart
C) head
D) large intestine

Question 74

Research conducted by Witt and colleagues (2015) found that among mothers who had a C-section, almost _____ did not appear to have any pregnancy complications.

A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 60%

Question 75

Research demonstrating that it is the scent of amniotic fluid that guides a newborn rat to its mother's nipple is evidence of

A) the similarity of rats and humans in their taste preferences.
B) fetal learning.
C) phylogenetic continuity.
D) rats' poor maternal instincts.

Question 76

Which sound is a newborn MOST likely to prefer?

A) mother's voice
B) mother's voice, muffled
C) mother's voice, at a faster rate of speech
D) father's voice

Question 77

Which statement about sensitive periods in prenatal development is TRUE?

A) All major organ systems share the same sensitive period.
B) Teratogens have the most serious effect on prenatal development immediately before a system's sensitive period.
C) A sensitive period is the time when a system's basic structures are being formed.
D) The sensitive period of limb development occurs several weeks before the limbs begin to form.

Question 78

Which statement about the long-term outcomes for low-birth-weight babies in comparison to babies of normal weight is NOT true?

A) Low-birth-weight babies are more likely to be hyperactive.
B) Low-birth-weight babies are more likely to have trouble with peer relations.
C) The majority of low-birth-weight babies end up similar to normal-weight babies in the long term.
D) Low-birth-weight babies have a decreased level of medical complications, lower rates of neurosensory deficits, and reduced illness rates.

Question 79

Phylogenetic continuity refers to the

A) expectation that some cells have a programmed suicide and thus selectively disappear.
B) notion that stem cells may be the key to curing diseases such as Parkinson's and Alzheimer's.
C) idea that humans share some characteristics and developmental processes with other animals.
D) relation between a cell's function before and after migration.

Question 80

Which concept is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs about prenatal development?

A) The effects of thalidomide on prenatal development vary depending on when during the pregnancy the mother took the drug.
B) Infants born prematurely already have all the correct structures but in miniature.
C) Female eggs contain minuscule preformed human beings.
D) None of these concepts is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs.