Deck 11: The Cardiovascular System: Blood

Question 1

Platelets are

A) giant, multinucleated cells.
B) cytoplasmic fragments.
C) immature leukocytes.
D) both A and B
E) all of the above

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following is an agranulocyte?

A) erythrocyte
B) WBC
C) monocyte
D) eosinophil
E) thrombocyte

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The chief difference between plasma and serum involves the

A) amount of water.
B) quantity of electrolytes.
C) quantity of organic wastes.
D) coagulation proteins.
E) concentration of glucose.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

The average life span of a red blood cell is

A) 1 week.
B) 1 month.
C) 4 months.
D) 6 months.
E) 1 year.

Question 5

Blood is composed of

A) plasma.
B) formed elements.
C) blood cells.
D) cell fragments.
E) all of the above

Question 6

The function of white blood cells is to

A) remove carbon dioxide from active cells.
B) remove nitrogenous wastes from active tissues.
C) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.
D) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.
E) defend the body against infectious organisms.

Question 7

Before red blood cells enter the bloodstream, they

A) flatten.
B) multiply their mitochondria.
C) eject their nucleus.
D) soak up oxygen.
E) recycle hemoglobin.

Question 8

The clotting proteins in blood plasma are

A) globulins.
B) transport proteins.
C) albumins.
D) collagen.
E) fibrinogens.

Question 9

Plasma proteins that are necessary for blood to maintain osmotic pressure are

A) albumins.
B) fibrinogens.
C) globulins.
D) collagens.
E) elastins.

Question 10

Biconcave cells without a nucleus are called

A) lymphocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) eosinophils.
D) erythrocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 11

Fresh whole blood is collected by

A) arthroscopy.
B) arterioscopy.
C) venipuncture.
D) sonography.
E) venoscopy.

Question 12

The function of hemoglobin is to

A) carry oxygen.
B) protect the body against infectious agents.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells.
E) all of the above

Question 13

Stem cells responsible for the production of white blood cells originate in the

A) liver.
B) thymus.
C) spleen.
D) bone marrow.
E) lymphoid tissue.

Question 14

Red blood cell production is regulated by a hormone from the

A) thymus.
B) lungs.
C) kidney.
D) suprarenal gland.
E) brain.

Question 15

The percentage of solids in a sample of human blood is normally about

A) 45 percent.
B) 10 percent.
C) 25 percent.
D) 70 percent.
E) 90 percent.

Question 16

A normal WBC count is about

A) 1,000-2,000.
B) 500-5,000.
C) 5,000-10,000.
D) 50,000-500,000.
E) 5 million-6 million.

Question 17

Plasma is the ________ fraction of blood.

A) serum.
B) lymphatic fluid.
C) whole blood.
D) extracellular fluid.
E) packed blood.

Question 18

Functions of the blood include

A) transport of nutrients and wastes.
B) regulation of pH and electrolyte concentration of interstitial fluids.
C) restricting fluid loss.
D) body defense.
E) all of the above

Question 19

The condition of cyanosis is caused by increased levels of

A) carbaminohemoglobin.
B) deoxyhemoglobin.
C) oxyhemoglobin.
D) carbon dioxide.
E) carbon monoxide.

Question 20

Red blood cells are stored in

A) the liver.
B) the thymus.
C) red bone marrow.
D) yellow bone marrow.
E) lymph nodes.

Question 21

Type AB blood contains

A) A agglutinins on the red blood cells.
B) agglutinogen A and B.
C) B agglutinogens on the red blood cells.
D) B agglutinins in the plasma.
E) agglutinin A and B.

Question 22

This condition results from retaining hemoglobin breakdown products in the blood.

A) hematuria
B) aplastic anemia
C) microcytic anemia
D) jaundice
E) sickle cell anemia

Question 23

Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples of

A) antibodies.
B) proteins.
C) white blood cells.
D) antigens.
E) none of the above

Question 24

A hemoglobin molecule contains

A) three protein chains, four heme groups, and two iron.
B) two protein chains, two heme groups, and four iron.
C) four protein chains, two heme groups, and two iron.
D) four protein chains, four heme groups, and four iron.
E) four protein chains, six heme groups, and two iron.

Question 25

Which grouping of conditions may result in an increased red blood cell count?

A) severe dehydration, diarrhea, polycythemia
B) anemia, dehydration, leukemia
C) anemia, dehydration, severe hemorrhage
D) leukemia, anemia, severe dehydration
E) anemia, polycythemia, dehydration

Question 26

A person who lives in a city at sea level and vacations in the Rocky Mountains would experience an increase in

A) the number of platelets in the blood.
B) the number of lymphocytes in the blood.
C) red blood cell count.
D) white blood cell count.
E) the density of the bone marrow.

Question 27

In adults, erythropoiesis primarily takes place in

A) the liver.
B) yellow bone marrow.
C) the tibia.
D) the spleen.
E) the kidneys.

Question 28

Having too many red blood cells is called

A) erythrocytosis.
B) erythropenia.
C) hemocytosis.
D) erythropoiesis.
E) hematopenia.

Question 29

EPO is released when

A) oxygen levels in the blood increase.
B) oxygen levels in the blood decrease.
C) carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase.
D) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease.
E) protein levels in the blood increase.

Question 30

A person's blood type is determined by the

A) size of the red blood cells.
B) shape of the red blood cells.
C) chemical character of the hemoglobin.
D) presence or absence of specific molecules on the plasma membrane.
E) number of specific molecules on the plasma membrane.

Question 31

Placement of an oxygen mask on a patient could result in

A) anemia.
B) increased numbers of lymphocytes.
C) increased erythropoiesis.
D) decreased erythropoiesis.
E) decreased elimination of vitamin K.

Question 32

Which condition(s) may result in an decreased red blood cell count?

A) acute infections
B) leukemia
C) menstruation
D) hypochromic anemia
E) all of the above

Question 33

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.

A) Erythropoiesis
B) Lymphopoiesis
C) Anemia
D) Leukopenia
E) Leukemia

Question 34

Another term for the condition known as erythroblastosis fetalis is

A) sensitization incompatibility.
B) cross reaction.
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn.
D) anemia.
E) none of the above

Question 35

Each heme group in a molecule of hemoglobin contains ________ atom(s) of iron.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 1/2

Question 36

Red bone marrow is located in the

A) sternum.
B) ribs.
C) bodies of vertebrae.
D) ends of long bones.
E) all of the above

Question 37

A toxin that blocks the stomach's ability to release intrinsic factor would cause

A) asphyxiation.
B) acidosis.
C) hemorrhage.
D) leukemia.
E) anemia.

Question 38

What effect would a drug that interferes with protein synthesis have on the development of red blood cells?

A) Fewer cells than normal would be formed.
B) The cells formed would not be able to carry as much oxygen as normal.
C) The cells formed would carry larger amounts of carbon dioxide.
D) The cells would be round like spheres.
E) all of the above

Question 39

This disease is characterized by an incorrect production of hemoglobin proteins.

A) sickle cell anemia
B) thalassemia
C) hematuria
D) jaundice
E) aplastic anemia

Question 40

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of appearance for mature red blood cells?

A) stem cell, erythroblast stage, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC
B) hemocytoblast, myeloblast, reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, RBC
C) myeloid stem cell, proerythroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC
D) monoblast, promonocyte, myelocyte, band cell, RBC
E) lymphoblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, band cell, RBC

Question 41

The white blood cells that are important in leaving the blood vessels and phagocytizing large materials are

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 42

Pus contains

A) leukocytes.
B) bacteria.
C) damaged body cells.
D) platelets.
E) all of the above

Question 43

The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of hemostasis and clot removal: 1. coagulation
2) fibrinolysis
3) vascular spasm
4) retraction
5) platelet phase
The correct sequence of these steps is

A) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3.
B) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2.
C) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4.
D) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1.
E) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1.

Question 44

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by

A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) the activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) the release of heparin from the liver.
E) the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

Question 45

The main event of the coagulation phase is

A) vascular spasm.
B) the activation of fibrinogen.
C) clot retraction.
D) the formation of a platelet plug.
E) the contraction of platelets.

Question 46

Platelets release ________, which causes local vasoconstriction.

A) serotonin
B) epinephrine
C) collagen
D) prostaglandin
E) fibrin

Question 47

Which of the following is a necessary cofactor in the formation of a blood clot?

A) albumin
B) fibrinogen
C) calcium
D) prothrombin
E) vitamin K

Question 48

The least numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 49

During a viral infection, you would expect to see increased numbers of

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) thrombocytes.

Question 50

Platelets function in

A) transporting chemicals important for clotting.
B) forming temporary patches in injured areas.
C) contraction after clot formation.
D) initiating the clotting process.
E) all of the above

Question 51

Which of the following is the MOST active phagocytically?

A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) erythrocytes

Question 52

Neutrophils

A) are granular leukocytes.
B) are phagocytic.
C) have lobed nuclei.
D) are active in fighting bacterial infection.
E) all of the above

Question 53

Platelets are

A) cells.
B) proteins.
C) cell fragments.
D) nuclei.
E) antibodies.

Question 54

Thrombocytopenia is a deficiency of

A) antibodies.
B) erythrocytes.
C) platelets.
D) WBC.
E) all of the above

Question 55

A sample of tissue from an injury shows a large number of eosinophils. This would indicate that the tissue was

A) abscessed.
B) inflamed.
C) being rejected.
D) infected by viruses.
E) infected by parasites.

Question 56

Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?

A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin K
E) vitamin E

Question 57

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera and anti-Rh sera, but not with the anti-B sera. This means

A) Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion.
B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood.
C) Bill is Rh-positive.
D) Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies.
E) Bill's plasma would cross-react with type 0 negative red blood cells.

Question 58

________ are large phagocytic WBCs that are "transformed" into phagocytic macrophages at the site of an injury.

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes

Question 59

The basic event that causes a blood clot to form is the change of

A) prothrombin to thrombin.
B) Factor X to Factor Xa.
C) fibrinogen to fibrin.
D) vitamin K to prothrombin.
E) PDGF to platelet.

Question 60

The common pathway of coagulation ends with

A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) the activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) the activation of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin.
E) the activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

Question 61

A stationary blood clot is called a(n)

A) embolus.
B) thrombus.
C) plaque.
D) coagulant.
E) platelet plug.

Question 62

Calcium ions and ________ have an effect on nearly every aspect of the clotting process.

A) vitamin K
B) vitamin A
C) vitamin D
D) vitamin E
E) thiamin

Question 63

Label B: ________

Question 64

The inherited condition resulting from the inadequate production of clotting factors is termed

A) anemia.
B) thalassemia.
C) jaundice.
D) hemophilia.
E) none of the above

Question 65

The percentage of whole blood occupied by cellular elements is termed the _________________________.

Question 66

Label E: ________

Question 67

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all specifically classified as _________________________.

Question 68

In the disease mononucleosis ("mono"), the spleen enlarges because of increased numbers of cells-both phagocytic as well as others. Common symptoms of this disease include pale complexion, a tired feeling, and a lack of energy, sometimes to the point of not being able to get out of bed. What might cause these symptoms?

Question 69

When hemoglobin is broken down, a green pigment called _________________________ is produced.

Question 70

The process of stopping bleeding is called _________________________.

Question 71

Label G: ________

Question 72

Label D: ________

Question 73

Label F: ________

Question 74

________ occur(s) where endothelial and smooth muscle cells contain large quantities of lipids.

A) Clots
B) Emboli
C) Coagulation
D) Plaques
E) Stasis

Question 75

Label C: ________

Question 76

Label A: ________

Question 77

Blood is approximately _________________________ percent plasma by volume.

Question 78

Match the formed element in the first column with its characteristic in the second.
_____ 1. RBC A. anucleated and biconcave
_____ 2. WBC B. anucleated and a cell fragment
_____ 3. platelet C. nucleated and spheroid

Question 79

The most common type of WBC in a normal blood sample is the _________________________.

Question 80

How would an increase in the concentration of calcium ion in the blood affect the process of hemostasis?

A) Platelet plugs would fail to form.
B) Coagulation would proceed more rapidly.
C) Coagulation would proceed more slowly.
D) Retraction would occur prematurely.
E) Fibrinolysis would occur more quickly.