Deck 5: Exploring Genes and Genomes

Question 1

The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester linkage at a break in a DNA strand is __________________.

Answer 1

DNA ligase

Question 2

cDNA attached to a microscope slide forms a _________________ used to study gene expression levels.

Answer 2

DNA microarray

Question 3

A pattern of DNA fragments can serve as a _____ of a particular DNA molecule.

A) template
B) primer
C) fingerprint
D) vector
E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The most common type of DNA sequencing is _____.

A) polymerase chain reaction method
B) Sanger dideoxy method
C) reverse transcriptase method
D) transformation method
E) restriction method

Question 5

In solid-phase synthesis of oligonucleotides, the 2'deoxyribonucleotide-3'-phosphoramidite is added to the _______ end of the growing oligonucleotide.

Question 6

The enzyme _________________ can be used to add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA.

Question 7

What type of vector is used to produce large amounts of a desired protein in a bacterial cell?

A) cloning vector
B) replication vector
C) transcription vector
D) translation vector
E) expression vector

Question 8

_____ split(s) DNA into specific fragments.

A) Plasmids
B) Reverse transcriptase
C) Polymerase chain reaction
D) Dideoxy nucleotide based sequencing
E) Restriction enzymes

Question 9

Who developed the polymerase chain reaction?

A) Frederick Sanger
B) Kary Mullis
C) Edwin Southern
D) Paul Berg
E) Herbert Boyer

Question 10

What enzyme is used to create DNA from RNA?

A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA polymerase
C) reverse transcriptase
D) RNA-DNA transcriptase
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 11

What was the first free-living organism to have its genome sequenced?

A) Homo sapiens
B) Escherichia coli
C) Drosophila melanogaster
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Canis domesticus

Question 12

Current DNA sequencing commonly uses _____ base analogues.

A) fluorescent
B) radioactive
C) phosphorescent
D) cross-linked
E) photoreactive

Question 13

A gene's function can be studied by inactivating the gene by a process known as gene disruption or _______________.

Question 14

pUC plasmids are useful for screening cells that contain recombinant DNA because they contain the _____ gene.

A) $\beta$ -galactosidase
B) tetracycline resistance
C) green fluorescent protein
D) luciferase
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 15

___________________________ cleave DNA at sites with inverted repeat sequences referred to as palindromic sequences.

Question 16

PCR is the abbreviation for ____________________________, which is an in-vitro technique used to make multiple copies of a DNA molecule.

Question 17

Bacterial plasmid DNA and bacteriophage DNA are commonly used ______________ to introduce foreign DNA into a bacterium.

Question 18

A plasmid is an example of a common ______.

A) cosmid
B) chromosome
C) gene
D) vector
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 19

The Sanger technique for sequencing DNA involves the use of __________________ nucleotide analogs that terminate chain elongation.

Question 20

Complementary, single-strand overhangs that are produced by some restriction endonucleases are referred to as ___________________.

Question 21

How can DNA fragments of various sizes be separated?

Question 22

Genes can be inserted into eukaryotic cells by

A) viruses.
B) plasmids.
C) microinjection.
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 23

Comparative genomics involves

A) looking for similarities in complementary strands of DNA.
B) using sequence information to compare human DNA with that from other organisms.
C) comparing protein expressed in different cell types.
D) comparing mitochondrial versus nuclear DNA.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 24

Which of the following DNA sequences contains a palindromic inverted repeat such as those recognized by restriction enzymes? (Note: Only one strand is shown.)

A) CAGTCC
B) GCATCC
C) CGATTAGC
D) GAGAGAGA
E) GCATATGC

Question 25

The biological role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to

A) repair DNA.
B) induce DNA crossover.
C) cleave foreign DNA.
D) join gaps in DNA.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 26

Each cycle in PCR includes

A) DNA synthesis.
B) hybridization of primers.
C) strand separation.
D) restriction.
E) DNA synthesis, hybridization of primers, and strand separation.

Question 27

The first three bases of the six-base recognition cleavage site of HindIII are AAG. What is the complete sequence of this 6 bp site?

A) AAGAAG
B) AAGCTT
C) AAGGAA
D) AAGCUU
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 28

The specificity or stringency of a PCR reaction can be controlled by altering the reaction

A) volume.
B) target sequence.
C) temperature and salt concentration.
D) time.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 29

The probe used to isolate a gene from a genomic library is often

A) the ligand that binds to the protein.
B) its promoter region.
C) a portion of the mRNA of the gene.
D) the protein produced by the gene.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 30

Why are Met and Trp codons often used to design DNA probes from amino acid sequences?

A) They are not degenerate and have single codons.
B) Met is the first amino acid in the protein chain.
C) Both are used often in proteins.
D) They always occur together in protein sequences.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 31

Explain the basis of the Sanger method.

Question 32

A number of tools are critical to gene exploration. Name at least four.

Question 33

Techniques for engineering new proteins by site-directed gene mutations include

A) oligonucleotide directed mutagenesis.
B) cassette mutagenesis.
C) chromosome walking mutagenesis.
D) oligonucleotide directed mutagenesis and cassette mutagenesis.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Question 34

Reverse transcriptase is normally encoded in DNA from

A) plants.
B) retroviruses.
C) mitochondria.
D) archaea.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 35

What is a DNA probe?

Question 36

A polylinker site contains

A) many closely spaced restriction enzyme sites.
B) links for antibiotic resistance.
C) sequences allowing linkage to mRNA.
D) a sequence that allows for insertion into the host chromosome.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 37

What do Southern, northern, and western blots detect, respectively?

A) DNA, RNA, and protein
B) DNA, protein, and RNA
C) RNA, DNA, and protein
D) protein, DNA, and RNA
E) RNA, protein, and DNA

Question 38

Plasmids used in recombinant DNA technology typically

A) possess a gene for antibiotic resistance.
B) replicate independently of the host genome.
C) are circular double-stranded molecules.
D) contain reporter genes.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Question 39

Design a potential DNA-restriction enzyme site. Show both strands.

Question 40

Animals that harbor a foreign gene as a result of recombinant gene manipulation are called

A) transgenic.
B) mutants.
C) aliens.
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) None of the answers is correct.

Question 41

How is a gene gun used?

Question 42

How is gene disruption used to determine the function of a gene?

Question 43

What advantage can be gained by splicing together portions of two different genes?

Question 44

If a gene is inserted into the gene that encodes an antibiotic resistance marker, will the resulting clone be sensitive or resistant to the antibiotic?

Question 45

How is a single gene of interest identified on a plate containing many different library clones?

Question 46

Describe two ways PCR can be used in medical diagnosis.

Question 47

Explain the basis of the polymerase chain reaction.

Question 48

Briefly outline the steps necessary to create a recombinant DNA molecule.

Question 49

How closely related are the human, rat, and puffer fish genomes?

Question 50

Briefly outline how a cDNA library is made.