Deck 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations

Question 1

Which of the following drugs are also known as clotbusters?

A) diuretics
B) anticholinergics
C) fibrinolytics
D) analgesics

Answer 1

fibrinolytics

Question 2

Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs interferes with potassium channels to prolong the period in which the next heartbeat can occur?

A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV

Answer 2

Class III

Question 3

Antihypertensives do not prevent or control high blood pressure by:

A) decreasing heart rate
B) dilating blood vessels
C) reducing circulating fluid volume
D) causing contraction of the smooth muscles that line the walls of blood vessels

Answer 3

causing contraction of the smooth muscles that line the walls of blood vessels

Question 4

Patients with which of the following conditions should not take OTC decongestants without first consulting with their doctor?

A) hepatitis
B) heart disease
C) diabetes
D) low blood pressure

Question 5

Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?

A) heroin
B) morphine
C) phenobarbital
D) small amounts of codeine in cough preparations

Question 6

Which of the following consist of medication bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids?

A) powders
B) inhalants
C) tablets
D) suppositories

Question 7

Which type of drug counteracts poisons and their effects selectively by binding with the toxin to inhibit further absorption?

A) expectorant
B) antibiotic
C) antidote
D) hypnotic

Question 8

Vasodilators do not:

A) cause the inner diameter of the vessel walls to narrow
B) relax the smooth muscle inside the vessel walls
C) lower blood pressure
D) allow for increased circulation to the area supplied by the vessel

Question 9

Antihypertensives control blood pressure by:

A) speeding up the heart rate
B) opening calcium channels
C) inhibiting conversion of angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2
D) causing arterial smooth muscle to contract

Question 10

Tegretol, Dilantin, and Zarotin are:

A) anticonvulsants
B) antidepressants
C) antidiarrheals
D) anticoagulants

Question 11

A Schedule IV controlled substance may be refilled:

A) never
B) no more than once
C) up to 2 times in 1 month
D) up to 5 times in 6 months

Question 12

The effects of a drug are categorized as ____ if they are generalized throughout the body.

A) local
B) remote
C) myopic
D) systemic

Question 13

Which type of drug stops the development, maturation, or spread of a cancer cell?

A) hemostatic
B) antineoplastic
C) vasopressor
D) sedative

Question 14

The trade name of a drug:

A) must be approved by CMS
B) is usually more difficult to remember than the generic name
C) is never capitalized
D) is assigned by the drug manufacturer for marketing

Question 15

Narcotics do not:

A) interfere with the central nervous system's recognition of pain impulses
B) cause hyperactivity
C) sometimes cause respiratory depression
D) provide a greater level of pain relief than analgesics

Question 16

The medical assistant's list of commonly prescribed medications should include all but which of the following?

A) usual dosage
B) possible side effects
C) contraindications
D) conditions for which each is prescribed

Question 17

Medications given _____ reach the bloodstream more rapidly than other routes.

A) transdermally
B) by injection
C) sublingually
D) orally

Question 18

A _____ controlled substance has a high potential for psychological dependence.

A) Schedule III
B) Schedule IV
C) Schedule I
D) Schedule V

Question 19

The purpose of the _____ is to provide accurate, reliable, and current information about most prescribed medications and related products.

A) Physician's Desk Reference for Nonprescription Drugs
B) product inserts provided by the manufacturer with a medication
C) Physician's Desk Reference (PDR)
D) nursing drug handbook

Question 20

Antipyretics reduce fever by acting on which part of the brain?

A) hypothalamus
B) midbrain
C) pons
D) pituitary gland

Question 21

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
antidiarrheal

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 22

Medications in the storage cabinet or closet should be organized:

A) according to their expiration date or classification
B) by date of arrival in the office or according to their expiration date
C) by date of arrival in the office or alphabetically
D) alphabetically or according to their classification

Question 23

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
antibiotic

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 24

In most states, the disposal of controlled substances requires witness of destruction by all but which of the following?

A) physicians
B) licensed pharmacists
C) nurses
D) law enforcement personnel (in some cases)

Question 25

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
antianxiety

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 26

Match each term with its definition.
Drug that is the only available, approved treatment for a given indication

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 27

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
analgesic

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 28

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
antihistamine

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 29

Which of the following drugs must be stored in a freezer?

A) flu vaccine
B) polio vaccine
C) testosterone
D) progesterone

Question 30

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
antacid

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 31

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
anticoagulant

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 32

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
anesthetic

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 33

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
laxative

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 34

Which section of the PDR lists the page number of each product by both brand and generic name?

A) section 1
B) section 2
C) section 3
D) section 4

Question 35

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
antiplatelets

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 36

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
decongestant

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 37

Which of the following types of drug information appear last in the Product Information section of the PDR?

A) brand names
B) warnings
C) how supplied
D) adverse reactions

Question 38

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
antimanic

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 39

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
bronchodilator

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 40

Match each of the following drugs with its classification.
hypoglycemic, oral

A)Tylenol
B)Novocaine
C)Mylanta
D)Librium
E)Druacillin
F)Coumadin
G)Kaopectate
H)Benadryl
I)lithium
J)Plavix
K)Proventil
L)Sudafed
M)Glucophage
N)Metamucil

Question 41

Match each term with its definition.
Electronic drug-dispensing system

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 42

Match each term with its definition.
When a drug has an additive effect, or enhances or multiplies the effects of another drug

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 43

Match each term with its definition.
Stimulates a particular action

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 44

Match each term with its definition.
Type of drug that is used to treat non-infectious processes by acting on different systems in the body to suppress chemicals or hormones being released by the body in excess or augment chemicals or hormones that are being produced in insufficient amounts

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 45

Match each term with its definition.
Application on the NIH Web site that helps health care providers identify a pill using its physical characteristics

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 46

Match each term with its definition.
Drug that may only be purchased or given to patients with written instructions from a licensed health care provider

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 47

Match each term with its definition.
Any drug that has the potential for abuse or addiction

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 48

Match each term with its definition.
Prevents an action or effect on a receptor site

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 49

Match each term with its definition.
Drug considered safe and effective for use by the general population without requiring a prescription

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™

Question 50

Match each term with its definition.
Group that includes drugs which are used to cure a disease caused by an infectious organism or cancer

A)chemotherapeutic
B)pharmacodynamic
C)agonist
D)antagonist
E)synergistic
F)orphan drug
G)prescription drug
H)controlled substance
I)Pyxis®
J)over-the-counter (OTC) drug
K)Pillbox™