Deck 9: Orthopedic Injuries

Question 1

When describing the apposition of skeletal fragments, which of the following words would not be used?

A) Partial
B) Bayonet
C) Distraction
D) Attraction

Answer 1

D

Question 2

A __________ is a condition of the forearm and/or lower leg in which alterations in blood flow result in compartmental pressure because of excessive swelling.

A) shin splint
B) forearm splint
C) compartment syndrome
D) A & B

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following should be the first step after an injury has been identified as a fracture?

A) Ensure that lacerations, abrasions, and avulsions are cleaned and dressed appropriately before splinting.
B) Immobilize the joint above and below the injury.
C) Contact emergency medical services (EMS) to ensure that they have appropriate splinting materials.
D) Splint the injury after the athlete has been removed from the field.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The need to control bleeding associated with an orthopedic injury is critical. The use of tourniquets is warranted in all situations to manage significant blood loss.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Only the first statement is true.
C) Only the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.

Question 5

____________ is referred to as the contact of skeletal fracture fragments.

A) Opposition
B) Apposition
C) Competition
D) Approximation

Question 6

A _______ splint is constructed of stiff and sturdy materials, and is most appropriately used for protecting and immobilizing misaligned skeletal fractures or gross joint instability.

A) rigid
B) soft
C) formable
D) vacuum
E) traction

Question 7

With which splint is caution advised because of the possibility of changes in temperature and atmospheric pressure and their impact on compression and support of the injured area?

A) Rigid
B) Soft
C) Formable
D) Vacuum
E) Traction

Question 8

When caring for injuries to the wrist and hand, preserving function is of the utmost importance. However, many would consider the form and appearance of the hand to be even more important.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Only the first statement is true.
C) Only the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.

Question 9

When is on-site fracture realignment used?

A) To promote favorable healing
B) To protect surrounding soft tissue
C) To address neurovascular deficiencies
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C

Question 10

When managing a humeral or femoral fracture a _______ splint should not be used, because it will not limit excursion of the proximal joints.

A) rigid
B) soft
C) formable
D) vacuum
E) traction

Question 11

Which of the following is not a classification of fracture orientation?

A) Spiral
B) Transverse
C) Oblique
D) Short
E) Segmental

Question 12

The most commonly fractured bones are _____________.

A) wrist and hand
B) foot
C) ankle
D) elbow and forearm

Question 13

Skeletal fractures are often classified based upon the anatomical structure involved and are referred to as __________.

A) the proximal segment relative to the distal segment
B) the distal segment relative to the proximal segment
C) the distal segment relative to the head
D) None of the above

Question 14

Which of the following must be performed first in order to appropriately evaluate and manage a possible fracture?

A) Inspect the extremities bilaterally
B) Observe the skin to rule out open fractures
C) Remove clothing and equipment covering the injured area
D) Splint the extremity in the position you found it

Question 15

Which of the following are you likely to find when palpating a fracture?

A) Point tenderness
B) Significant pain
C) Crepitus
D) All of the above

Question 16

The secondary evaluation, as it relates to orthopedic injuries, should include which of the following?

A) Screening torso and extremities
B) Examining for open wounds
C) Assessing circulation
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C

Question 17

Alignment of a fracture _________.

A) refers to the association of long-bone fragment axes to one another
B) involves a measure of the angulation from the distal segment in relation to the proximal segment
C) takes into account the proximity of bony fragments relative to one another
D) A & B
E) A & C

Question 18

Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to compartment syndrome?

A) Compartment syndrome causes a diminished or absent pulse because of constricted blood vessels.
B) Although compartment syndrome reduces blood flow, sensation is not altered.
C) Compartment syndrome, if not treated, can prove to be life threatening.
D) Compartment syndrome will develop in large part because of the ability of an area to accommodate edema associated with a fracture.

Question 19

Which of the following is the most important when considering whether an athletic trainer should attempt realignment of a skeletal fracture?

A) The athletic trainer's competency with the technique
B) The degree of displacement
C) The acuity of the injury
D) The accompanying neurovascular pathology

Question 20

A fracture involving the distal end of the radius is often termed a ___________. This injury results from falling on an outstretched arm with the wrist in flexion.

A) Colles' fracture
B) Bennett's fracture
C) Smith's fracture
D) capitullar fracture

Question 21

Which of the following are potential complications associated with clavicular fractures?

A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Brachial plexus compromise
D) Injury to the subclavian artery
E) All of the above

Question 22

________ is the formation of a hematoma above the inguinal region.

A) Destot's sign
B) Roux's sign
C) Raccoon sign
D) Battle's sign

Question 23

Roux sign is indicative of a(n) __________.

A) acetabular fracture
B) fracture of the pubic bone
C) fracture of the ilium
D) None of the above

Question 24

Which of the following types of fractures would be classified as type I fractures of the femur?

A) Spiral or transverse
B) Comminuted
C) Open

Question 25

The most important role of the athletic trainer in managing pelvic fractures is ____________.

A) immediate activation of emergency medical services (EMS)
B) immediate stabilization of the fractured area
C) immediate splinting of the iliac crests
D) immediate monitoring of vital signs

Question 26

Which of the following complications are often identified with humeral fractures in skeletally immature patients?

A) Myositis ossificans
B) Avascular necrosis
C) Volkmann's ischemic contracture
D) Abnormal bone development

Question 27

Which of the following are complications specific to inappropriate management of pelvic fractures?

A) Elevated incidence of intrapelvic compartment syndrome
B) Digestive dysfunction
C) Reproductive system dysfunction
D) Internal infections due to disrupted urinary structures
E) All of the above

Question 28

Which of the following statements is true with regard to splinting someone with a distal humerus fracture?

A) A short-arm splint should be used in the position of presentation.
B) If a lateral condyle is involved, the patient should be splinted in pronation with the wrist extended.
C) If a lateral condyle is involved, the patient should be splinted in supination with the wrist extended.
D) If a medial condyle is involved, the patient should be splinted in pronation with the wrist extended.

Question 29

_________ is identifiable based upon the dorsal displacement of the fractured segments.

A) Colles' fracture
B) Bennett's fracture
C) Smith's fracture
D) Capitullar fracture

Question 30

Which of the following fractures associated with the foot are often considered catastrophic?

A) Lisfranc's fracture
B) Fifth metatarsal fracture
C) Talar dome fracture
D) First metatarsal fracture

Question 31

Which of the following conditions will most likely not present in conjunction with a fracture of the femur?

A) Tachycardia, because of extensive blood loss
B) Hypotension, because of extensive blood loss
C) Hypovolemic, because of to extensive blood loss
D) Hypertension, because of blood loss

Question 32

Fractures of the clavicle are most prevalent in its _________.

A) lateral third
B) middle third
C) medial third
D) A & B
E) B & C

Question 33

Identify the most common mechanisms of injury and types of fractures associated with the tibia and fibula.

A) Direct force to tibia, resulting in oblique fracture
B) Indirect torsional loading of the fibula, resulting in oblique or spiral open fracture
C) Indirect torsional loading of the tibia, resulting in a transverse fracture
D) Direct force on the fibula, resulting in a comminuted and displaced fracture

Question 34

Which of the following statements is true regarding forearm skeletal fractures?

A) Radial shaft fractures are more prevalent in the proximal one-third of the bone.
B) Management of displaced forearm fractures requires immobilization of the wrist and elbow.
C) Assessment of the sensorimotor distribution of the median and ulnar nerves is of little importance.
D) Monitoring of vascular compromise must be performed in order to prevent the development of forearm splints.

Question 35

A(n) _____________ involves rupturing of the interosseous membrane of the forearm and requires immediate medical attention.

A) Essex-Lopresti fracture
B) Volkmann's ischemic contracture
C) Oxford-Blanc fracture
D) ulnar-traction fracture

Question 36

Fractures of the sternum typically result from __________.

A) high-energy blunt trauma to the chest
B) extreme trunk hyperflexion
C) extreme trunk lateral bending
D) A & B
E) B & C

Question 37

________ can occur in association with a fracture of the olecranon.

A) Rupturing of the triceps aponeurosis
B) Ulnar nerve compromise
C) Decreased blood supply
D) A & B
E) A & C

Question 38

Fractures to the ________ are extremely rare and occur as a result of significant force.

A) scapula
B) radius
C) fibula
D) second metacarpal

Question 39

Which of the following must be ruled out in cases in which a scapular fracture has occurred?

A) Thorax
B) Abdomen
C) Lumbar spine
D) Cranium

Question 40

If a nondisplaced fracture of the humerus is identified, the fracture should be immobilized with a rigid long-arm splint, and the patient should be transported to the nearest hospital. If a displacement is noted, a rigid long-arm splint should be applied in the position of presentation, and emergency medical services (EMS) should be activated.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Only the first statement is true.
C) Only the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.

Question 41

Which of the following are signs and symptoms typically identified in patients with joint dislocations?

A) Pain
B) Deformity
C) Ability to move joint freely
D) A & B
E) B & C

Question 42

Which of the following joints should be relocated only by a medical specialist?

A) Elbow
B) Hip
C) Knee
D) All of the above

Question 43

_________ are often used to guide athletic trainers in quickly establishing the severity of an ankle pathology.

A) Ottawa rules
B) Montreal rules
C) Vancouver rules
D) Penn scoring systems