Deck 9: The Quest for Peace Through International Law and Collective Security

Question 1

Nuclear arsenals have declined by slightly less than 50 percent since the highs of the Cold War period.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

The League of Nations never became an effective collective security organization largely because the United States refused to join.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

NATO's noninvolvement with civil unrest in Bosnia-Herzegovina showed the organization it must not interfere with regional and civil conflicts.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

The Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) was a bilateral treaty between the United States and Russia in which they agreed to cut their nuclear arsenals in an attempt to lower the risk of nuclear war by making a successful preemptive strike impossible.

Question 5

Disarmament and arms control mean essentially the same thing in that both refer to reduction in armaments.

Question 6

The antiwar feminist tradition shares the constructivist view that weapons of mass destruction cannot secure global security.

Question 7

Bilateral arms control agreements tend to be far more alienating and therefore less successful than multilateral agreements.

Question 8

One obstacle to effective arms control is continuous innovation in the development of new types of weapons.

Question 9

The UN was designed to manage wars between states, it was not organized or legally authorized to intervene in civil wars.

Question 10

The most significant multilateral agreement signed since World War II was the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty of 1968.

Question 11

When President George W. Bush entered office in 2001, he strengthened the 1972 Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty by agreeing to reduce the number of U.S. nuclear warheads even further than the treaty required.

Question 12

Peacemaking is the process of diplomacy, mediation, negotiation, or other forms of peaceful settlement.

Question 13

Collective security relies on participation from all members of the state system.

Question 14

Prisoner's Dilemma is a metaphor intended to illustrate the difficulty of cooperation among nations regarding military armaments.

Question 15

Liberal theory holds that increased war preparations increase the likelihood of war.

Question 16

No principle of international law is more important than the right of self defense.

Question 17

The Southeast Asia Treaty Organization (SEATO) is an example of a regional collective defense organization.

Question 18

The eight known nuclear states have conducted more than 10,000 nuclear explosions since 1945.

Question 19

More than any other event, World War II discredited the realist argument that peace was a by-product of a stable balance of power.

Question 20

The security dilemma refers to the difficulty in achieving peace in a nuclear age.

Question 21

Which two countries broke the NPT's barriers to nonproliferation to become nuclear states in 1998?

A) Iran and North Korea
B) India and Pakistan
C) Brazil and Libya
D) Saudi Arabia and Egypt
E) Germany and Japan

Question 22

One hundred eighty-nine countries reaffirmed their commitment to ___________ during the 2010 NPT review.

A) getting nuclear powers to give up their bombs
B) prevent other nations from acquiring nuclear weapons
C) promoting nuclear power for peaceful uses only
D) further reductions of nuclear materials by Russia and the United States
E) All of the above are true.

Question 23

Nuclear arsenals in the United States and Russia have declined by approximately __________ from Cold War highs?

A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 75 percent
E) 90 percent

Question 24

A major criticism of antipersonnel landmines is

A) they do not discriminate between civilians and soldiers in their destructive powers.
B) they are located in only a very few countries, which limits access to them.
C) in 1994, every state banned them.
D) removal of them is too easy.
E) the United States has too much opposition from other nations to ban them.

Question 25

Collective security differs from balance-of-power theory because it

A) depends on a system of flexible alliances and counter-alliances.
B) creates an international organization to organize military responses to aggression.
C) abolishes state sovereignty.
D) relies on ad hoc security agreements.
E) All of the above are true.

Question 26

Prior to 1952, a citizen was not protected against the state's abuse of human rights or what is now called crimes against humanity.

Question 27

One problem with international law is that it is viewed as an instrument of the powerful to oppress the weak, where the rules are created to preserve the existing hierarchy.

Question 28

The five permanent members of the Security Council are

A) Russia, China, Great Britain, France, and the United States.
B) China, Germany, Russia, Great Britain, and the United States.
C) Great Britain, Russia, Germany, France, and the United States.
D) France, Italy, Russia, Great Britain, and the United States.
E) All of the above are members of the Security Council.

Question 29

All states have the right to sovereign equality and, therefore, have the right to the full respect of other states and the rules under the international legal system.

Question 30

All of the following are principles of collective security except

A) all threats to peace must be a common concern to everyone.
B) all nations should be members of the collective security organization.
C) all members should pledge to settle disputes peacefully.
D) bilateral trade agreements.
E) when a breach of peace occurs, sanctions should be applied to punish the aggressor.

Question 31

In recent years there have been approximately 90 civilian deaths for every 10 military deaths, an exact reversal of the ratio from World War I.

Question 32

The realist argument that said peace was a by-product of a stable balance of power was replaced with ________

A) an arms race.
B) collective security.
C) the long peace.
D) alliance politics.
E) none of the above.

Question 33

Which of the following is true of NATO?

A) Article 5 was invoked after 9/11 for the first time.
B) Many European nations have been reluctant participants in Afghanistan, restricting the extent to which their forces can participate in military operations.
C) Its mission is expanding to include the encouragement of the spread of democracy.
D) Membership has grown from 12 original members to 28 members.
E) All of the above are true.

Question 34

The difference between arms control and disarmament is that

A) arms control pertains to nuclear weapons, whereas disarmament pertains to conventional weapons.
B) arms control is designed to regulate arms levels, whereas disarmament seeks to reduce weapons drastically or eliminate them.
C) arms control has been used in the twentieth century, whereas disarmament was used in the nineteenth century.
D) arms control concerns the weapons of the great powers; disarmament concerns those of small and medium powers.
E) arms control is negotiated willingly between nations, whereas disarmament is forced upon the defeated nation in a conflict.

Question 35

Just war doctrine refers to the moral criteria identifying when a war may be undertaken and how it should be fought once it begins.

Question 36

What series of arms control agreements between the United States and Russia began the stabilization and eventual reduction of strategic nuclear warheads?

A) SORT
B) SALT
C) START
D) INF
E) All of the above

Question 37

Diplomatic actions taken in advance of a predictable crisis to prevent or limit violence is called __________.

A) preventive diplomacy
B) collective security
C) conciliation
D) peacekeeping
E) peacemaking

Question 38

Which of the following is an example of a multilateral arms control agreement?

A) Hot Line Agreement
B) Nuclear Nonproliferation Treaty
C) Strategic Arms Limitation Talks (SALT)
D) Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT)
E) Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces Treaty (INF)

Question 39

Agreements to reduce or destroy weapons or other means of attack is known as

A) arms control.
B) collective security.
C) disarmament.
D) peacekeeping.
E) peace enforcement.

Question 40

The United Nations is involved in an average of ________ peacekeeping operations in a year.

A) 48
B) five
C) seventeen
D) fifty
E) 120

Question 41

What is the difference between arms control and disarmament?

Question 42

What is the difference between jus ad bellum and jus in bello?

Question 43

Why are antipersonnel landmines so harmful?

Question 44

The theory that aggression by any state will be met by a unified response from the remaining nations is known as ____________________ .

Question 45

Just war doctrine is further complicated by

A) chemical weapons.
B) biological weapons.
C) the innovations of the revolution in military technology.
D) improvised explosive devices.
E) all of the above.

Question 46

The theory that stresses states' customs and habitual ways of behaving as the most important source of law is called _________.

A) positivist legal theory
B) ubi societas, ibi jus
C) structural violence
D) soft power
E) just war doctrine

Question 47

List two regional security organizations.

Question 48

What is the difference between peace operations and peace enforcement?

Question 49

A post-conflict actions that strengthens and rebuilds governmental infrastructure and institutions in order to avoid renewed conflict is known as _______________.

Question 50

Public international law includes

A) relations between governments.
B) relations between governments and intergovernmental organizations.
C) transnational activities, like commerce.
D) both A and B.
E) all of the above.

Question 51

Which of the following is a limitation of international law?

A) International law is universal.
B) Under international law, legality and legitimacy always go hand in hand.
C) International law is rarely used by the powerful to suppress the weak.
D) International law's ambiguity reduces law to a policy tool for propaganda purposes.
E) International law is never used to justify existing practices.

Question 52

Why is NATO both a military alliance and a political alliance?

Question 53

____________________ are those organizations and military alliances within a specific region created to preserve peace and security for their members collectively.

Question 54

The legal criteria by which a leader may wage a war is known as

A) ubi societas, ibi jus.
B) jus cogens.
C) jus ad bellum.
D) jus in bello.
E) pacta sunt servant.

Question 55

The process by which third party intermediaries participate in negotiations between the parties to a dispute is known as

A) adjudication.
B) diplomacy.
C) reciprocity.
D) mediation.
E) arbitration.

Question 56

Conflict management procedures include all of the following except

A) good offices.
B) conciliation.
C) arbitration.
D) adjudication.
E) All of the above are conflict management procedures.

Question 57

____________________ is a doctrine regarding moral considerations under which war may be undertaken and how it should be fought once it begins.

Question 58

The International Criminal Court was established to prosecute

A) states that violate international law.
B) individuals accused of interstate crimes, like money laundering.
C) NGOs that violate international law.
D) individuals charged with war crimes.
E) states that sponsor terrorists.

Question 59

According to St. Thomas More, the assassination of an evil leader

A) can never be justifiable.
B) violates the commandment "Thou shalt not kill".
C) for rules of war are not based on aggression, but on morals.
D) replaces the City of Man with the City of God.
E) is justified if it would prevent the taking of innocent lives.

Question 60

Weaknesses of the International Court of Justice include

A) that it can rule in cases that states do not bring to it.
B) that it can make rulings only on disputes freely submitted by states exercising their sovereign rights.
C) that it does not protect state sovereignty.
D) that its decisions are final with no opportunity to appeal.
E) both B and D only.

Question 61

When a third party assists both sides in a dispute but does not offer any solution it is known as ________________.

Question 62

___________________ is the return in kind or degree of friendly or hostile communication received from the other party in a negotiation.

Question 63

____________________ is a conflict-resolution procedure in which a third party proposes a nonbinding resolution to disputants.

Question 64

Give a short history of the origins of just war theory?

Question 65

What are the conditions that must be met in order for a war to be considered "just?" Was the 2003 war that the United States waged against Iraq just, based on these criteria? How does terrorism affect attempting to wage jus ad bellum? How about jus in bello?

Question 66

Many people incorrectly assume that the terms "arms control" and "disarmament" are synonymous. What are the differences between arms control and disarmament? Which type of agreement is more difficult to achieve? Why? What steps might be taken in the future to ensure true reductions in state arms acquisitions?

Question 67

A bargaining approach that consistently reciprocates in kind, the offers or threats made by the other party in a negotiation with equivalent rewards returned and equivalent punishing communications returned in retaliation is known as ____________________.

Question 68

Describe the Prisoner's Dilemma and discuss how it relates to arms control. Do you see any practical methods for escaping this dilemma in regards to arms control agreements? How might nonstate organizations such as the United Nations change the nature of the game? How might the prisoner's decision be altered if he/she abides by realist theory? By liberal theory? By constructivist theory?

Question 69

Compare the rules of statecraft of the League of Nations to that of the United Nations. Why did the League of Nations fail? What did the United Nations do differently compared to the disappointing League of Nations? What superpowers helped design a far different United Nations than the League of Nations?