Deck 8: Cellular Reproduction

Question 1

Which of the following organelles would be abundant and in close proximity to the cell plate in a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis?

A) centrioles
B) Golgi apparatus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) lysosomes
E) central vacuole

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Losing weight can reduce an obese person's risk for cancer by up to 40%.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?

A) DNA is duplicated during the G ₁ and G ₂ phases
B) DNA replicates during cytokinesis
C) the M phase is usually the longest phase of the cell cycle
D) interphase consists of G ₁, S, and G ₂
E) the cell enters a non-dividing state in the G ₂ phase.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Stem cells that contain telomerase can be found in adults.

Question 5

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible under a microscope?

A) only during interphase
B) only when they are being copied
C) during mitosis
D) only during the G ₁ phase
E) chromosomes are always visible

Question 6

Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably.

Question 7

Cancer cells have abnormal chromosomes because they express telomerase when they should not.

Question 8

Susan was examining a cell under the microscope and noticed the formation of a cell plate in the midline of the cell and the formation of nuclei at opposite poles of the cell. The cell under examination was most likely a(n)

A) animal cell in the M phase of the cell cycle.
B) dividing bacterial cell.
C) plant cell undergoing cytokinesis.
D) animal cell undergoing cytokinesis.
E) plant cell in the anaphase stage.

Question 9

Differentiated cells, such as nerve cells, would be in which of the following stages of the cell cycle?

A) G ₁
B) G ₀
C) G ₂
D) M
E) R

Question 10

The G ₂ checkpoint prevents the cell cycle from continuing until

A) it is known for sure if the cell will divide.
B) the DNA has finished replicating.
C) the chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle fibers.
D) all the organelles have been duplicated.
E) the centrosomes have duplicated.

Question 11

Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited.

Question 12

What structure holds two sister chromatids together?

A) centromere
B) centriole
C) chromatin
D) spindle
E) centrosome

Question 13

A centromere holds together twov: 03_11_2019_QC_CS-162215

A) centrosomes.
B) centrioles.
C) sister chromatids.
D) spindle fibers.
E) non-sister chromatids.

Question 14

Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?

A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E) metaphase, interphase, cytokinesis, anaphase, telophase

Question 15

Chromatin wrapped around histones form a bead-like structure known as a

A) nucleotide.
B) the chromatin network.
C) centrosome.
D) nucleosome.
E) mesosome.

Question 16

Which items in the following pairs are correctly matched?

A) G ₁ phase - DNA replication
B) G ₂ phase - organelle replication
C) S phase - DNA replication
D) M phase - cell growth
E) G ₀ phase - cell growth

Question 17

If you were looking under the compound light microscope at an onion root tip, in what stage of the cell cycle would the majority of the cells be?

A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) cytokinesis
D) interphase
E) prophase

Question 18

Nuclear division occurs during

A) M phase
B) G ₁ and S phases
C) S and G ₂ phases
D) G ₂ and M phases
E) G ₀ phase

Question 19

Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about mitosis?

A) the cells arising from mitosis are genetically alike
B) the process of nuclear division is followed by cytokinesis
C) spindle fibers are involved in the movement of chromosomes during mitosis
D) both sexually and asexually reproducing organisms utilize the process of mitosis
E) the cells arising from mitosis contain only half of the necessary genetic material

Question 20

Translocations can lead to cancer if they disrupt the genes that regulate the cell cycle.

Question 21

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

A) anaphase.
B) interphase.
C) metaphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 22

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell undergoes mitosis and not cytokinesis, this would result in

A) a cell with a single large nucleus.
B) a cell with two nuclei.
C) cells with abnormally small nuclei.
D) feedback responses that prevent mitosis.
E) death of the cell line.

Question 23

Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by

A) increasing telomeres.
B) preventing spindle formation.
C) producing kinases.
D) inhibiting cytokinesis.
E) causing cells to divide quickly.

Question 24

In an experiment, cells grown in a petri dish divided until they formed a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. When cells were removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space began dividing until they had filled the empty space. What does this experiment show?

A) When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing.
B) The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.
C) Cell division can be regulated by factors outside of the cell.
D) Cells continue to grow as long as there is adequate space.
E) All answers are valid and correct.

Question 25

Cancer occurs when

A) cells are unable to divide because of a mutation.
B) faulty spindle fibers are unable to pull chromatids apart.
C) apoptosis occurs.
D) the DNA of a cell becomes mutated.
E) the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.

Question 26

What would occur in a cell if the production of cyclins halted during the cell cycle?

A) the cell would continue to divide indefinitely
B) organelles would not be duplicated in G ₁
C) the cell would not complete cytokinesis
D) the cell would enter the G ₀ phase
E) the cell would remain in the G ₂ phase and would not enter into mitosis

Question 27

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

A) anaphase.
B) interphase.
C) metaphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 28

A cell is inhibited during the S phase of its cycle. It will not reproduce due to lack of

A) ATP availability.
B) centriole migration.
C) centromere formation.
D) DNA synthesis.
E) plasma membrane structure.

Question 29

Which of the following occurs prior to prophase?

A) coiling of chromosomes
B) degradation of the nucleolus
C) formation of spindles
D) synthesis of DNA
E) degradation of the nuclear envelope

Question 30

Which of the following is characteristic of cancer cells?

A) cells that have lost contact inhibition
B) cells with abnormal nuclei
C) cells that lack differentiation
D) cells that have uncontrolled cell division
E) All of the above are characteristics of cancer cells.

Question 31

Ben was looking at onion root tip cells under the microscope in biology class. He saw one cell that had two nuclei within it. What stage of the cell cycle was this cell in?

A) anaphase
B) interphase
C) metaphase
D) prophase
E) telophase/cytokinesis

Question 32

If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at the end of anaphase there would be a total of

A) 23 chromatids.
B) 23 chromosomes.
C) 46 chromatids.
D) 46 chromosomes.
E) 92 chromosomes.

Question 33

If there are 20centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

Question 34

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. Which of the following statements explains why this occurs?

A) The cells become deficient in cyclin.
B) The petri dish inhibits the cells' growth.
C) Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of the same type, a process called contact inhibition.
D) Most cells grown in petri dishes have gone through apoptosis.
E) The cells have differentiated into more specialized cells.

Question 35

The term metastasis refers to the fact that cancer cells tend to

A) destroy.
B) divide.
C) decline.
D) shrink.
E) spread.

Question 36

During which phase of mitosis are the sister chromatids separated and consequently become daughter chromosomes?

A) anaphase
B) interphase
C) metaphase
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 37

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein needed for the M-phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

A) the cell would prematurely enter anaphase
B) the cell would never leave metaphase
C) the cell would never enter metaphase
D) the cell would never enter prophase
E) the cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G ₁

Question 38

Which of the following would increase your risk of cancer?

A) increasing the consumption of foods rich in vitamin A and C
B) avoiding salt-cured, pickled, and smoked foods
C) increasing the consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family
D) avoiding cigarette smoking, smokeless tobacco, and sunbathing
E) avoiding a high-fiber, low-sodium diet

Question 39

How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in G ₁ of the cell cycle?

A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

Question 40

Apoptosis

A) is a process that repairs damaged DNA.
B) occurs as telomeres increase in length.
C) can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.
D) increases the number of somatic cells.
E) increases the number of gamete cells.

Question 41

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuation in concentration during the cell cycle, are called

A) centromeres.
B) kinetochores.
C) centrioles.
D) proton pumps.
E) cyclins.

Question 42

Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because

A) plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not.
B) animal cells need to build a cell wall, while plant cells do not.
C) animal cells need to build a cell membrane, while plant cells do not.
D) animal cells are living, while plant cells are not.
E) plant cells divide by mitosis, while animal cells divide by meiosis.

Question 43

Cytokinesis in plants occurs as ________ and in animals as ________.

A) actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch; the Golgi apparatus produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall
B) the Golgi apparatus produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
C) the centrosome produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; the Golgi apparatus produces actin fibers to pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
D) actin fibers interact to make the cell wall; the cleavage furrow pulls the membrane inward until the two sides touch
E) the Golgi apparatus produces a cleavage furrow; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch

Question 44

A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function. What would be the most likely result of this mutation?

A) the cell cycle halts and reverses back to the G ₀ stage
B) the cell loses contact inhibition even when it is not surrounded by other cells
C) the cell cycle accelerates
D) the cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis
E) the cell stops dividing permanently and will never re-enter the cell cycle

Question 45

A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene

A) may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot.
B) stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis.
C) only activates enzymes in a cell that allows metastasis.
D) inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle.
E) promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.

Question 46

Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to

A) produce new organisms.
B) produce gametes.
C) increase the variability of the population.
D) increase the size of the organism.
E) facilitate sexual reproduction.

Question 47

Cells that do not receive the correct signals to move from G ₁ into S phase will enter G ₀ and therefore will

A) immediately move into the mitotic phase.
B) never be able to undergo mitosis.
C) be able to produce gametes through meiosis.
D) stay in an undifferentiated state and become stem cells.
E) not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go-ahead signal.

Question 48

The figure below shows a cell in which stage of the cell cycle?

A) anaphase
B) interphase
C) metaphase
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 49

A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that

A) RB is inactive.
B) a cell is undergoing apoptosis.
C) proto-oncogenes have not yet mutated.
D) a cell is probably cancerous.
E) tumor suppressors are active.

Question 50

Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because

A) plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not.
B) animal cells need to build a cell wall, while plant cells do not.
C) animal cells need to build a cell membrane, while plant cells do not.
D) animal cells are living, while plant cells are not.
E) plant cells divide by mitosis, while animal cells divide by meiosis.

Question 51

The drug chloral hydrate prevents elongation of microtubules. During which stage of the cell cycle would chloral hydrate be most harmful?

A) M phase
B) G ₁
C) G ₂
D) S phase
E) cytokinesis

Question 52

Rebecca has a tumor in her ovaries. She recently underwent a series of tests and is returning to the doctor to find out the results.Which of the following would be the best news that Rebecca could receive from her doctor?

A) It is a benign tumor.
B) The cells are cancerous and are in situ.
C) It is a malignant tumor.
D) It is malignant ovarian cancer.
E) The tumor has metastasized and invaded neighboring tissue.

Question 53

The mitotic spindle is composed of ________, which originate from the __________.

A) microtubules; centrosome
B) asters; spindle equator
C) centrosomes; aster
D) microtubules; chromatid
E) microtubules; cleavage furrow

Question 54

A translocation may lead to cancer if it

A) disrupts control of expression of genes that regulate the cell cycle.
B) deletes the telomere of the chromosome.
C) moves genes from one chromosome to another.
D) activates tumor suppressor genes.
E) affects both tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes.

Question 55

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their

A) size.
B) spindle fibers.
C) rate of cell division.
D) surface area.
E) volume.

Question 56

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA in the nucleus. Those cells would have ________ picograms at the end of the S phase and ________ picograms at the end of G ₂.

A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16

Question 57

Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because

A) DNA polymerase is inactive.
B) telomerase is active.
C) telomerase is inactive.
D) RNA polymerase is inactive.
E) proto-oncogenes are inactive.

Question 58

Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic division to

A) repair damaged cells.
B) increase the size of the organism.
C) produce new organisms.
D) increase the genetic variability of the population.
E) produce gametes.

Question 59

A mutation that causes an increase in function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer because a tumor suppressor protein

A) normally promotes the cell cycle.
B) normally responds to growth factors.
C) activates a signal transduction pathway.
D) inactivates growth factors.
E) does not promote cell division.

Question 60

Which of the following is a characteristic of cancer cells?

A) stimulate the growth of blood vessels
B) travel through the bloodstream to other parts of the body
C) have abnormal chromosomes
D) produced by a mutation of a proto-oncogene
E) All of the above answers are characteristics of cancer cells.

Question 61

A protein that promotes apoptosis would be considered a(n)

A) oncogene.
B) proto-oncogene.
C) tumor suppressor.
D) mutant tumor suppressor.
E) signal transduction pathway protein.

Question 62

What is the structure that holds together the two sister chromatids that form a chromosome?

A) centromere
B) nucleosome
C) histone
D) nucleus
E) chromatin

Question 63

The presence of which protein is required in order for chromatin to compact correctly within the nucleus?

A) histone
B) nucleosome
C) actin
D) chromatid
E) myosin

Question 64

When a portion of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome, this is called a

A) translocation.
B) telomerase.
C) apoptosis event.
D) suppressor event.
E) jumping gene.

Question 65

Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer. Which of the genes listed below takes its name from its association with an eye tumor?

A) BRCA1
B) RB
C) RET
D) RAS
E) DScam

Question 66

If cancer is discovered at an early stage, which treatment method is most often used?

A) surgery
B) radiation
C) chemotherapy
D) hormonal therapy
E) drug therapy

Question 67

What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?

A) duplicated chromosome
B) chromatin
C) histones
D) nucleosome
E) DNA

Question 68

Angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis because it

A) allows tumor cells to spread to other parts of the body.
B) causes blood vessels to grow into the tumor.
C) allows tumor cells to invade underlying tissues.
D) causes additional mutations to occur in tumor cells.
E) causes apoptosis in tumor cells.

Question 69

Which lifestyle choice is responsible for 90% of the cases of lung cancer among men?

A) smoking
B) using tanning beds
C) excessive alcohol consumption
D) drug use
E) using smokeless tobacco

Question 70

An oncogene is more likely to lead to cancer than a mutant tumor suppressor gene because

A) a gain of function mutation in an oncogene need only occur in one allele before it disrupts control of the cell cycle.
B) a loss of function mutation in an oncogene is sufficient to cause unregulated cell division.
C) the mutant oncogene may inactivate telomerase.
D) a gain of function mutation in a tumor suppressor gene can promote the cell cycle.
E) a gain of function mutation in an oncogene is more likely to cause the other allele to mutate.

Question 71

If tumor cellshave afaulty, nonfunctional proteinase, they will be unable to undergo which of the following processes?

A) mitosis
B) mutations
C) metastasis
D) apoptosis
E) angiogenesis

Question 72

If a cell stops at the G ₁ checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?

A) there is DNA damage
B) the DNA has not finished replicating
C) the chromosomes are not aligned properly
D) the cell is cancerous
E) the chromosomes are not properly attached to the spindle

Question 73

Which cancer therapy can lead to side effects such as nausea and hair loss?

A) chemotherapy
B) surgery
C) hormonal therapy
D) drug therapy
E) All of these can lead to nausea and hair loss.

Question 74

During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?

A) interphase: S
B) interphase: G ₁
C) interphase: G ₂
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 75

Which of the following is mismatched?

A) interphase - shortest stage of the cell cycle
B) S stage - DNA synthesis
C) M stage - mitosis and cytokinesis
D) G ₁ stage - cell grows in size and cell organelles increase in number
E) G ₂ stage - metabolic preparation for mitosis