Deck 24: Primary and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndromes

Question 1

Typically, patients in the early stages of HIV infection

A)are completely asymptomatic.
B)show mild, chronic lymphadenopathy.
C)are jaundiced.
D)Either A or B.

Answer 1

Either A or B.

Question 2

A positive Western blot test (WB) for HIV infection is indicated by the presence of __________ bands.

A)p24
B)gp60 and gp160
C)p24 and p31
D)p24 and gp41

Answer 2

p24 and gp41

Question 3

A protein included in the core of the HIV-1 virus is called

A)gp41.
B)p24.
C)p25.
D)Either B or C.

Answer 3

Either B or C.

Question 4

In HIV infections, a window period of seronegativity extends from the time of initial infection up to

A)2 weeks.
B)2 to 6 weeks or longer.
C)6 to 12 weeks or longer.
D)4 to 8 months or longer.

Question 5

Which gene is responsible for the coding of reverse transcriptase in the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A)env
B)gag
C)pol
D)tat

Question 6

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attaches itself to receptor sites by means of

A)p24.
B)p31.
C)gp120.
D)gp160.

Question 7

The most frequent malignancy or opportunistic infection observed in AIDS patients is

A)Pneumocystis jiroveci.
B)Kaposi's sarcoma.
C)toxoplasmosis.
D)non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Question 8

If an immune dysfunction is suspected in a child, the appropriate workup would be a(n)

A)complete blood count, platelet and erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B)lymphocyte profile by flow cytometry.
C)immunoglobulin electrophoresis.
D)All of the above.

Question 9

Immunologic activation of CD4+ cells latently infected with HIV induces the production of multiple viral particles, leading to cell death and the depletion of

A)CD4+ lymphocytes.
B)CD8+ lymphocytes.
C)B lymphocytes.
D)granulocytes.

Question 10

The major structural protein (core) of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) type 1 (HIV-1) is composed of

A)gp41.
B)p24.
C)gp120.
D)Both A and C.

Question 11

Match the disorders with the appropriate description. (Use each answer only once.)
DiGeorge syndrome

A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens

Question 12

The structures gp41 and gp120 are viral

A)lipids.
B)proteins.
C)glycoproteins.
D)carbohydrates.

Question 13

After the early period of primary HIV infection (viremia), the patient enters a period of clinical latency that lasts a median of _______ years.

A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20

Question 14

Infants 18 months of age and older should be screened for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) if they exhibit which of the following infections?

A)Chronic respiratory infections
B)Severe viral infections
C)Candida or other fungal infections
D)All the above.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is (are) true about retroviruses?

A)They contain a single, positive-stranded ribonucleic acid (RNA).
B)They contain a special enzyme called reverse transcriptase in their core.
C)They reverse the normal process of transcription in which DNA is converted to RNA.
D)All of the above.

Question 16

In addition to lymphocytes, ___________ and skin cells can be infected by HIV.

A)macrophages
B)monocytes
C)cells in the lymph nodes
D)All of the above.

Question 17

The HIV infectious process begins when the protein on the viral envelope binds to the protein receptor _______ on the surface of a target cell.

A)CD8
B)CD4
C)p24
D)p26

Question 18

Since 2014, the CDC recommendations for HIV testing utilize a fourth-generation antigen-antibody test to screen for

A)HIV-1 p24 antigen.
B)antibodies to HIV-1 (groups M and O).
C)repeated positive HIV-1 and HIV-2 results confirmed with an HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation test.
D)negative or indeterminate results for HIV-1 or HIV-2 antibody differentiation confirmed with quantitative PCR.
E)all the above.

Question 19

Which procedure was first used as a screening procedure for the detection of HIV?

A)EIA
B)Western blot
C)Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D)Southern blot

Question 20

Which is the first detectable viral antibody in the blood of a patient with HIV infection?

A)p24
B)gp41
C)gp120
D)gp160

Question 21

Match the disorders with the appropriate description. (Use each answer only once.)
Bruton's disorder

A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens

Question 22

Match the phases of drug testing with the appropriate description.
Phase III

A)This phase lasts about 2 years. The number of volunteers is 100 to 300 persons with the disease to assess the effectiveness of a drug and to observe for adverse side reactions.
B)This phase lasts about 1 year and includes 20 to 80 healthy volunteers who are tested for the safety of new drug.
C)This phase lasts about 3 years. The number of patients with a specific disease is 1000 to 3000 to further verify effectiveness and identify any specific negative side effects of the drug.

Question 23

Match the phases of drug testing with the appropriate description.
Phase I

A)This phase lasts about 2 years. The number of volunteers is 100 to 300 persons with the disease to assess the effectiveness of a drug and to observe for adverse side reactions.
B)This phase lasts about 1 year and includes 20 to 80 healthy volunteers who are tested for the safety of new drug.
C)This phase lasts about 3 years. The number of patients with a specific disease is 1000 to 3000 to further verify effectiveness and identify any specific negative side effects of the drug.

Question 24

Match the disorders with the appropriate description. (Use each answer only once.)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens

Question 25

HIV is held within leukocytes and carried in fluid (e.g., blood, semen) to the body of another person.

Question 26

Human immunodeficiency virus can enter the body with cells associated with HIV.

Question 27

Match the disorders with the appropriate description. (Use each answer only once.)
Nezelof syndrome

A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens

Question 28

Match the phases of drug testing with the appropriate description.
Phase II

A)This phase lasts about 2 years. The number of volunteers is 100 to 300 persons with the disease to assess the effectiveness of a drug and to observe for adverse side reactions.
B)This phase lasts about 1 year and includes 20 to 80 healthy volunteers who are tested for the safety of new drug.
C)This phase lasts about 3 years. The number of patients with a specific disease is 1000 to 3000 to further verify effectiveness and identify any specific negative side effects of the drug.

Question 29

The mode of viral transmission is not associated with the viral subtype.

Question 30

The progressive decline in CD4+ cells is the primary factor in determining the clinical progression of AIDS.

Question 31

Match the disorders with the appropriate description. (Use each answer only once.)
Duncan's disease

A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens