Deck 8: Performance Measurement And Information Management
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ملء الشاشة (f)
Deck 8: Performance Measurement And Information Management
1
In the classification of defects,a "critical defect" is one that will result in a customer complaint.
False
2
The cost of quality is a key financial performance indicator.
True
3
Data mining is a type of interlinking.
True
4
A convenient way of reporting quality costs is through a breakdown by organizational function.
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5
In traditional accounting systems,all quality costs except inspection and testing are charged to overhead.
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6
The number of nonconformities per unit is a commonly used indicator of manufacturing quality.
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7
The use of statistical techniques,such as regression and analysis of variance,will ensure an organization's ability to effectively analyze data.
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8
A dashboard provides a quick summary of a single process performance measure.
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9
Leading organizations in information management rigorously justify the return on investment of each expenditure in information technology.
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10
ERP systems,due to their emphasis on data security,are designed to restrict the flow of data through an organization.
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11
A "leading measure" predicts what will happen.
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12
Information is derived from the analysis of data.
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13
Activity-based costing organizes cost information around profit centers.
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14
Key business drivers represent things that separate an organization from its competition and define strengths to exploit or weaknesses to correct.
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15
Production volume and seasonal influences affect quality costs.
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16
A hotel's use of ratings and awards from travel industry publications to assess its competitive status is an example of using comparative data.
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17
Performance measures and indicators should reflect the most important factors that predict customer satisfaction and business performance.
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18
Information systems costs expended to develop data requirements and measurements represent appraisal costs.
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19
Quality costs in services are generally labor dependent.
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20
At the process level,quality and operational performance data form the basis for strategic planning and decision-making.
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21
A good balanced scorecard should contain:
A)lagging measure only.
B)leading measures only.
C)both lagging and leading measures.
D)neither lagging nor leading measures.
A)lagging measure only.
B)leading measures only.
C)both lagging and leading measures.
D)neither lagging nor leading measures.
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22
If a company finds that the level of employee satisfaction appears to predict turnover,then employee satisfaction represents ______ measure while turnover represents ______ measure.
A)a leading, a lagging
B)a prescriptive, a predictive
C)a dependent, an independent
D)a prevention, an appraisal
A)a leading, a lagging
B)a prescriptive, a predictive
C)a dependent, an independent
D)a prevention, an appraisal
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23
_____ is/are simply representation(s)of facts that come from some type of measurement process.
A)Data
B)Measures
C)Indicators
D)Information
A)Data
B)Measures
C)Indicators
D)Information
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24
_____ is a useful financial performance indicator,which managers use to prioritize improvement projects and gauge the effectiveness of total quality efforts.
A)Benchmarking
B)Direct costing
C)Cost of quality
D)Qualitative Investment Analysis
A)Benchmarking
B)Direct costing
C)Cost of quality
D)Qualitative Investment Analysis
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25
Which of the following is NOT a customer-focused outcome?
A)Response delays
B)Warranty claims
C)Customer retention
D)Positive referral
A)Response delays
B)Warranty claims
C)Customer retention
D)Positive referral
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26
Companies that recognize the importance of reliable and appropriate data and information practice all of the following activities EXCEPT:
A)development of a comprehensive set of performance indicators.
B)continuous refining of information sources and their uses.
C)ensuring that hardware and software systems are user-friendly.
D)collecting and analyzing data by quality control departments perform the collection and analysis of data.
A)development of a comprehensive set of performance indicators.
B)continuous refining of information sources and their uses.
C)ensuring that hardware and software systems are user-friendly.
D)collecting and analyzing data by quality control departments perform the collection and analysis of data.
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27
A set of financial,market,operational,and employee performance measures for management review and use is an example of:
A)an enterprise resource plan.
B)an interlinking model.
C)a data mine.
D)a balanced scorecard.
A)an enterprise resource plan.
B)an interlinking model.
C)a data mine.
D)a balanced scorecard.
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28
Traditionally,most organizations relied on the following performance data EXCEPT:
A)customer perspective.
B)return on investment.
C)earnings per share.
D)machine utilization.
A)customer perspective.
B)return on investment.
C)earnings per share.
D)machine utilization.
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29
Which of the following is NOT a benefit derived from good data and information management?
A)Workers obtain concrete feedback on their performance.
B)Operational cost are lowered due to better planning and improvement actions.
C)Large quantities of data-laden reports are generated.
D)Indicators provide effective measurement of customer service levels.
A)Workers obtain concrete feedback on their performance.
B)Operational cost are lowered due to better planning and improvement actions.
C)Large quantities of data-laden reports are generated.
D)Indicators provide effective measurement of customer service levels.
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30
_____ is a measurement that is not a direct or exclusive measure of performance.
A)Information
B)An indicator
C)A scorecard
D)A dashboard
A)Information
B)An indicator
C)A scorecard
D)A dashboard
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31
Robert Kaplan and David Norton developed a balanced scorecard which had four perspectives.Which one of the following is NOT one of them?
A)Financial
B)Industry
C)Customer
D)Innovation and Learning
A)Financial
B)Industry
C)Customer
D)Innovation and Learning
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32
At the _____ level,operational performance data such as yields,cycle times,and productivity measures help middle managers determine accomplishment of their objectives,whether they are using resources effectively,and where improvement might be necessary.
A)individual
B)process
C)organization
D)industry
A)individual
B)process
C)organization
D)industry
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33
Marketplace performance indicators could include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)measures of business growth.
B)new product and geographic markets entered.
C)percentage of new product sales as appropriate.
D)customer surveys on product and service performance.
A)measures of business growth.
B)new product and geographic markets entered.
C)percentage of new product sales as appropriate.
D)customer surveys on product and service performance.
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34
Data and information support management at different levels.Which of the following is NOT an example of data at the individual level that helps provide real-time information for feedback and process control?
A)Quality performance
B)Adherence to schedules
C)Costs of operations
D)Productivity measures
A)Quality performance
B)Adherence to schedules
C)Costs of operations
D)Productivity measures
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35
Response time is an example of a:
A)service outcome.
B)workforce-focused outcome.
C)customer-focused outcome.
D)financial and market outcome.
A)service outcome.
B)workforce-focused outcome.
C)customer-focused outcome.
D)financial and market outcome.
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36
_____ measures are generally tracked by senior leadership to gauge overall organizational performance.
A)Financial
B)Customer
C)Product
D)Service
A)Financial
B)Customer
C)Product
D)Service
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37
The Malcolm Baldrige Criteria for Performance Excellence Results category groups performance measures into six sets.Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A)Product outcomes
B)Customer-focused outcomes
C)Industry-focused outcomes
D)Process effectiveness outcomes
A)Product outcomes
B)Customer-focused outcomes
C)Industry-focused outcomes
D)Process effectiveness outcomes
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38
Perceived value is an example of a:
A)customer-focused outcome.
B)service outcome.
C)financial and market outcome.
D)process-effectiveness outcome.
A)customer-focused outcome.
B)service outcome.
C)financial and market outcome.
D)process-effectiveness outcome.
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39
Absenteeism,turnover,training effectiveness,and engagement are examples of _____ outcomes.
A)process-effectiveness
B)customer-focused
C)workforce-focused
D)leadership
A)process-effectiveness
B)customer-focused
C)workforce-focused
D)leadership
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40
_____ outcomes include business-specific indicators,such as innovation rates and increased use of product and process yields,and Six Sigma initiative results.
A)Process-effectiveness
B)Leadership
C)Customer-focused
D)Marketplace performance
A)Process-effectiveness
B)Leadership
C)Customer-focused
D)Marketplace performance
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41
A _____ is any mistake or error that is passed on to the customer.
A)dysfunction
B)nonconformance
C)return
D)defect
A)dysfunction
B)nonconformance
C)return
D)defect
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42
A(n)_____ defect is one likely to result in failure or to materially reduce the usability of the unit for its intended purpose.
A)internal
B)critical
C)minor
D)major
A)internal
B)critical
C)minor
D)major
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43
_____ systems are software packages that integrate organizational information systems and provide an infrastructure for managing information across the enterprise.
A)Customer relationship management
B)Enterprise resource planning
C)Application service provider
D)Client-Server
A)Customer relationship management
B)Enterprise resource planning
C)Application service provider
D)Client-Server
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44
To reduce the inconsistency in calculating quality issues in products and processes,Six Sigma uses the measure of:
A)defects per million units (dpmu).
B)errors per million opportunities (epmo).
C)defects per million opportunities (dpmo).
D)errors per six million opportunities (epsmu)
A)defects per million units (dpmu).
B)errors per million opportunities (epmo).
C)defects per million opportunities (dpmo).
D)errors per six million opportunities (epsmu)
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45
Regulatory or legal compliance is an example of a:
A)financial outcome.
B)leadership outcome.
C)workforce-focused outcome.
D)process effectiveness outcome.
A)financial outcome.
B)leadership outcome.
C)workforce-focused outcome.
D)process effectiveness outcome.
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46
A unit of work is the:
A)measure of work in a manufacturing facility.
B)basis of calculating wages in production units.
C)output of a process or an individual process step.
D)the smallest task beyond which work cannot be simplified.
A)measure of work in a manufacturing facility.
B)basis of calculating wages in production units.
C)output of a process or an individual process step.
D)the smallest task beyond which work cannot be simplified.
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47
The acronym SMART used to characterize good measures and indicators is expanded as:
A)short, modified, accurate, reachable, and testable.
B)simple, measurable, actionable, related, and timely.
C)superior, median, achievable, rational, and typical.
D)smart, movable, applicable, reasonable, and temporal.
A)short, modified, accurate, reachable, and testable.
B)simple, measurable, actionable, related, and timely.
C)superior, median, achievable, rational, and typical.
D)smart, movable, applicable, reasonable, and temporal.
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48
Which of the following is NOT a supply chain indicator?
A)Reductions in inventory and incoming inspections
B)Increases in quality and productivity
C)Product and process yields
D)Third-party assessment results
A)Reductions in inventory and incoming inspections
B)Increases in quality and productivity
C)Product and process yields
D)Third-party assessment results
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49
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding effective performance measures?
A)They should be driven by internal and external factors that shape an organization's operating environment.
B)They should logically be tied to key business drivers.
C)They should be aligned with strategies and action plans.
D)They should follow the guidelines in the Baldrige Criteria.
A)They should be driven by internal and external factors that shape an organization's operating environment.
B)They should logically be tied to key business drivers.
C)They should be aligned with strategies and action plans.
D)They should follow the guidelines in the Baldrige Criteria.
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50
In services,a measure of quality analogous to defects per unit is:
A)errors per unit.
B)errors per opportunity.
C)defects per transaction.
D)defects per opportunity.
A)errors per unit.
B)errors per opportunity.
C)defects per transaction.
D)defects per opportunity.
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51
Practical guidelines for designing a performance measurement system include all of the following EXCEPT that:
A)multiple indexes can be combined into one index.
B)measures should start at the top and flow down to all organizational levels.
C)measuring more variables is better than fewer variables.
D)measures should include a mix of the past, present, and future.
A)multiple indexes can be combined into one index.
B)measures should start at the top and flow down to all organizational levels.
C)measuring more variables is better than fewer variables.
D)measures should include a mix of the past, present, and future.
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52
A common process-level measurement,extensively used in Six Sigma environments,is _____ - the probability that a unit can pass through a series of process steps without defects.
A)zero defects
B)zero deviance
C)rolled throughput yield
D)normalized yield
A)zero defects
B)zero deviance
C)rolled throughput yield
D)normalized yield
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53
Generally,many organizations classify defects into _____ defects,_____ defects,and _____ defects.
A)critical; major; minor
B)internal; external; customer-based
C)product; process; delivery
D)design; delivery; customer service
A)critical; major; minor
B)internal; external; customer-based
C)product; process; delivery
D)design; delivery; customer service
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54
_____ uses analytical approaches and technologies such as cluster analysis,neural networks,and fuzzy logic.
A)Interlinking
B)Cost-benefit analysis
C)Data mining
D)Enterprise resource planning
A)Interlinking
B)Cost-benefit analysis
C)Data mining
D)Enterprise resource planning
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55
Operational improvement is an example of a:
A)customer-focused outcome.
B)process effectiveness outcome.
C)leadership outcome.
D)financial and market outcome.
A)customer-focused outcome.
B)process effectiveness outcome.
C)leadership outcome.
D)financial and market outcome.
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56
According to Six Sigma standards,a defect rate of 2 per 1,000 is equivalent to:
A)20000 dpmo.
B)2000 errors.
C)12,000 dpmo.
D)2,000 dpmo.
A)20000 dpmo.
B)2000 errors.
C)12,000 dpmo.
D)2,000 dpmo.
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57
Which of the following questions is NOT asked in the "Evaluate the performance measures to ensure their usefulness" stage to generate useful process performance measures?
A)Are measurements taken at critical points where value-adding activities occur?
B)Is it feasible to obtain the data needed for each measure?
C)Have operational definitions for each measurement been established?
D)What deviations can occur?
A)Are measurements taken at critical points where value-adding activities occur?
B)Is it feasible to obtain the data needed for each measure?
C)Have operational definitions for each measurement been established?
D)What deviations can occur?
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58
Which of the following is NOT an internal responsiveness indicator to measure process effectiveness outcome?
A)Cycle times
B)Production flexibility
C)By-product use
D)Time to market
A)Cycle times
B)Production flexibility
C)By-product use
D)Time to market
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59
Analysts examined the relationship between satisfaction levels and repeat sales at McGregor Buy & Save.They found that 88 percent of repeat purchases came from satisfied or very satisfied customers.They found that a one percentage point in overall satisfaction could bring in 6 million in repeat sales annually.This analysis is an example of:
A)defect ratio.
B)zero budgeting.
C)cost-benefit analysis.
D)interlinking.
A)defect ratio.
B)zero budgeting.
C)cost-benefit analysis.
D)interlinking.
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60
Because of the negative connotation of "defect" and its potential implication in liability suits,the term _____ has become widely accepted.
A)nonconformity
B)problem
C)error
D)complication
A)nonconformity
B)problem
C)error
D)complication
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61
A credit card company has identified speed of service as a strength that separates it from its competitors.For this company,speed of service can be viewed as:
A)comparative data.
B)a key business factor.
C)a lagging indicator.
D)an internal benchmark.
A)comparative data.
B)a key business factor.
C)a lagging indicator.
D)an internal benchmark.
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62
Which of the following is NOT an external failure cost?
A)Scrap and rework costs
B)Costs due to customer complaints
C)Product recall costs
D)Product liability costs
A)Scrap and rework costs
B)Costs due to customer complaints
C)Product recall costs
D)Product liability costs
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63
Better prevention of poor quality:
A)reduces internal and external failure costs, and increases appraisal cost.
B)reduces internal and external failure costs, and does not affect appraisal cost.
C)reduces external failure cost, does not affect internal failure cost, and increases appraisal cost.
D)reduces internal and external failure costs and appraisal cost.
A)reduces internal and external failure costs, and increases appraisal cost.
B)reduces internal and external failure costs, and does not affect appraisal cost.
C)reduces external failure cost, does not affect internal failure cost, and increases appraisal cost.
D)reduces internal and external failure costs and appraisal cost.
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64
A collection of indicators summarizing organizational performance is known as a:
A)dashboard.
B)variance report.
C)status update.
D)hoshin call.
A)dashboard.
B)variance report.
C)status update.
D)hoshin call.
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65
The cost associated with unplanned machine downtime,when operators halt the production line after identifying an unacceptably high rate of defective output,should be classified as:
A)a prevention cost.
B)an internal quality cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)a reactive failure cost.
A)a prevention cost.
B)an internal quality cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)a reactive failure cost.
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66
The term 'dpmo' stands for:
A)defective parts manufactured on-site.
B)data processing for manufacturing operations.
C)defects per million opportunities.
D)design, production, and marketing organization.
A)defective parts manufactured on-site.
B)data processing for manufacturing operations.
C)defects per million opportunities.
D)design, production, and marketing organization.
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67
An advantage of cost of quality measures is that management receives a report where the unit of analysis is:
A)errors.
B)defects.
C)dollars.
D)lost sales.
A)errors.
B)defects.
C)dollars.
D)lost sales.
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68
Which of the following is NOT a prevention cost?
A)Process control costs
B)Inspection costs
C)Quality planning costs
D)Training costs
A)Process control costs
B)Inspection costs
C)Quality planning costs
D)Training costs
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69
A measure is ______ if it provides the basis for decisions at the level at which it is applied.
A)understandable
B)actionable
C)observable
D)analyzable
A)understandable
B)actionable
C)observable
D)analyzable
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70
The cost of purchasing copies of a textbook on quality for employees as part of their training program in process improvement methods is considered:
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal quality cost.
D)an external quality cost.
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal quality cost.
D)an external quality cost.
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71
Quality costs are classified into all of the following major categories EXCEPT:
A)internal failure.
B)appraisal.
C)inspection.
D)prevention.
A)internal failure.
B)appraisal.
C)inspection.
D)prevention.
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72
Which of the following statements about traditional accounting systems is INCORRECT?
A)They present an inadequate picture of manufacturing efficiency.
B)They attach no value to rework or bottlenecks that impede processing.
C)They allocate overhead costs to the products and services that use them.
D)They usually are not structured to capture important cost-of-quality data.
A)They present an inadequate picture of manufacturing efficiency.
B)They attach no value to rework or bottlenecks that impede processing.
C)They allocate overhead costs to the products and services that use them.
D)They usually are not structured to capture important cost-of-quality data.
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73
The notion that each customer contact provides the potential for the occurrence of problems can be operationalized by a measure of:
A)key success factors.
B)nonconformities per unit.
C)activity-based costing.
D)errors per opportunity.
A)key success factors.
B)nonconformities per unit.
C)activity-based costing.
D)errors per opportunity.
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74
Which of the following is associated with defective products that have been delivered to the customer?
A)Internal failure costs
B)Appraisal costs
C)Downgrading costs
D)External failure costs
A)Internal failure costs
B)Appraisal costs
C)Downgrading costs
D)External failure costs
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75
For most companies embarking on a quality cost program,management typically finds that actual costs,in order of highest to lowest,are:
A)external failure, internal failure, appraisal, and prevention.
B)internal failure, external failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C)internal failure, prevention, external failure, and appraisal.
D)External failure, prevention, internal failure, and appraisal.
A)external failure, internal failure, appraisal, and prevention.
B)internal failure, external failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C)internal failure, prevention, external failure, and appraisal.
D)External failure, prevention, internal failure, and appraisal.
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76
The cost Ford Motor Corporation incurred to recall its one-year-old Windstar vans in order to replace a faulty relay switch is an example of:
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
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77
A judge rules that a lawn mower manufacturer must pay a liability settlement to a consumer who was injured using a defectively produced lawn mover.The cost of the settlement represents what type of cost to the manufacturer?
A)Prevention
B)Internal failure
C)Appraisal
D)External failure
A)Prevention
B)Internal failure
C)Appraisal
D)External failure
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78
An inspector at a shirt manufacturer discovered that over fifteen hundred shirts were manufactured with incorrect buttons.The manufacturer sold the shirts at 70% of the normal price to a retailer who specializes in "factory seconds." The revenue lost by the manufacturer is considered:
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
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79
Inspection is:
A)an appraisal cost.
B)a prevention cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
A)an appraisal cost.
B)a prevention cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
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80
A machined part is returned to the drilling department for rework.The additional labor that is used to correct the quality problem with the part is:
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
A)a prevention cost.
B)an appraisal cost.
C)an internal failure cost.
D)an external failure cost.
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