Deck 40: Protection, Support, and Movement

Question 1

A skeletal system would include all of the following except:

A) myofilaments.
B) a shell.
C) a fluid-filled compartment.
D) a system of bones.
E) an exoskeleton.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following is not a modification of epithelial cells?

A) scales
B) mucus-secreting cells
C) sensory cells
D) an endoskeleton
E) poison-secreting cells

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Figure 40-2
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Contraction of the fibers labeled A in Figure 40-2 results in:

A) elongation of the body.
B) elongation of the tentacles.
C) elongation of the gastrovascular cavity.
D) shortening of the body.
E) expansion of the pedal disk.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
A person with fair skin produces less __________ than a person with dark skin.

A) sebum
B) keratin
C) melanin
D) melatonin
E) mucous

Question 5

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-1.Which of the following structures contributes to protecting the skin from the effects of UV irradiation?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10
E) 11

Question 6

Toads of the genus Bufo can secrete enough poison to kill a 100 pound dog.What is the source of this poison?

A) epithelial cells
B) goblet cells
C) endothelial cells
D) sweat glands
E) oil glands

Question 7

The anti-bacterial peptides secreted by frogs and toads is produced by:

A) epithelial cells.
B) goblet cells.
C) endothelial cells.
D) sweat glands.
E) oil glands.

Question 8

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Which of the following statements about UV radiation is true?

A) It is necessary for the body to make vitamin B.
B) The amount of UV radiation that reaches the Earth's surface is fairly constant.
C) The ozone hole is responsible for the Greenhouse Effect, but has no impact on levels of UV radiation.
D) Individuals with less melanin suffer less wrinkling and skin cancer.
E) Exposure to ultraviolet rays causes the epidermis to thicken and produce more melanin.

Question 9

Skeletal systems can serve all of the following purposes except:

A) protection.
B) allowing for movement.
C) attachment for muscles.
D) storage.
E) contraction.

Question 10

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-1.Which of the following structures contributes to regulation of body temperature?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10
E) 11

Question 11

Hair follicles and blood vessels are found in which layer of the skin?

A) epidermis
B) dermis
C) subcutaneous tissue
D) stratum basale
E) stratum corneum

Question 12

You would not expect sebum to be involved in:

A) keeping hair moist.
B) contributing to the color of the skin.
C) making the skin supple.
D) inhibiting bacterial growth.
E) preventing desiccation of the skin.

Question 13

The spinning glands of insects that make threads and silk develop from:

A) epithelial cells.
B) goblet cells.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteoclasts.
E) sebum.

Question 14

Which of the following is not a specialized function of epithelial coverings?

A) exchange of gases
B) secretion of lubricants
C) receiving sensory signals
D) facilitation of flexibility for movement
E) temperature regulation

Question 15

Which of the following statements about keratin is false?

A) It is a protein molecule.
B) It is manufactured by epidermal cells.
C) It gives strength to the skin.
D) It acts as an evaporative barrier to prevent excess water loss.
E) It facilitates diffusion across the body surface.

Question 16

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-1.Which cells would be more active in a person with dark skin as opposed to a person with fair skin?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10
E) 11

Question 17

Which of the following statements concerning malignant melanoma is false?

A) It is the fastest growing (in number of incidents) form of skin cancer.
B) It is the most lethal form of skin cancer.
C) It is the third most common form of cancer in humans.
D) Its highest incidence is in light-skinned individuals.
E) It is caused by excessive exposure to UV irradiation.

Question 18

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-1.Which labeled portions of the skin would be affected by UV light?

A) 1 and 5
B) 1 and 15
C) 5 and 15
D) 5 and 14
E) 1, 14, 15

Question 19

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-1.Which of the following structures is the source of sebum, a substance that inhibits bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 11
E) 12.

Question 20

Figure 40-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-1.Which of the following regions of the skin contributes to insulation of the body?

A) 1
B) 10
C) 11
D) 14
E) 15

Question 21

Figure 40-3
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
The difference between spongy bone and compact bone is that spongy bone:

A) is found near the surfaces of bone, while compact bone is found interiorly.
B) consists of osteons, while the compact consists of thin strands of bone.
C) is filled with red bone marrow, while compact bone is not.
D) occupies the diaphysis, while compact bone occupies the epiphysis.
E) is involved in bone development, while compact bone is not.

Question 22

What do sea stars and mollusks have in common?

A) an internal skeleton
B) an exoskeleton
C) a skeleton that transmits force
D) a skeleton containing chitin
E) they both undergo molting

Question 23

Large, multinucleate cells that break down bone are called:

A) osteoblasts.
B) chondrocytes.
C) bone stem cells.
D) chondroblasts.
E) osteoclasts.

Question 24

Figure 40-3
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Which statement about endochondral bone development is true?

A) Ossification begins in the diaphysis and later occurs in the epiphyses.
B) Bones develop from a noncartilage connective tissue scaffold.
C) Most bones of the skull undergo endochondral bone development.
D) Only the periosteum undergoes endochondral bone development.
E) Osteoclasts are the bone-building cells of endochondral bone development.

Question 25

People who undergo radiation therapy sometimes develop anemia resulting from a decreased production of red blood cells.This is because the radiation is:

A) having an affect on the spongy bone.
B) having an affect on the osteoblasts.
C) having an affect on the metaphysis.
D) having an affect on the melanocytes.
E) having an affect on the keratinocytes.

Question 26

The function and structure of the vertebral column include all of the following except:

A) provide for flexibility.
B) protect the spine.
C) allow passage of the spinal nerves.
D) increase stability of the body from the neck to the lower back.
E) form the pectoral girdle.

Question 27

Figure 40-3
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
The portion of the bone labeled B in Figure 40-3 is called:

A) the periosteum.
B) the diaphysis.
C) the epiphysis.
D) compact bone.
E) metaphysis..

Question 28

Figure 40-2
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Which of the following statements concerning the type of support illustrated in Figure 40-2 is false?

A) It is flexible.
B) It can be found in cnidarians.
C) It demonstrates cells working in an antagonistic fashion.
D) It it absent in vertebrates that have an endoskeleton.
E) It is dependent on fluids being noncompressible.

Question 29

Figure 40-2
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Which of the following statements about hydrostatic skeletons is true?

A) Compression of fluids causes movement of an animal body.
B) Hydrostatic skeletons permit very precise and delicate movements.
C) Fluid is moved throughout an organism due to alternating contractions of antagonistic muscles.
D) Contraction of the inner circular muscles causes the body of an organism to shorten.
E) Contraction of the outer longitudinal muscles causes the body of an organism to lengthen.

Question 30

Which statement about intramembranous bone formation is true?

A) Growth in height is possible.
B) Growth of skull bones is possible.
C) Formation of blood cells is possible.
D) Development of synovial joints for movement is possible.
E) Production of lacunae with osteocytes occurs as a part of growth.

Question 31

The components of the pectoral girdle are:

A) three fused hipbones.
B) the clavicles and the scapula.
C) the ribs and the clavicles.
D) the ribs and the sternum.
E) the ribs and the digits.

Question 32

Which of the following groups of vertebrae are closest to the head?

A) sacral
B) thoracic
C) cervical
D) coccygeal
E) cranial

Question 33

Figure 40-3
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
In Figure 40-3, the function of the structure labeled C, particularly in small children, is:

A) to produce blood cells.
B) to act as a growth center.
C) to provide mechanical strength.
D) to serve as an attachment site for tendons.
E) to nourish the bone tissue.

Question 34

Which of the following is not a region of the vertebral column?

A) sacral region
B) thoracic region
C) cervical region
D) coccygeal region
E) cranial region

Question 35

Suture joints:

A) provide rigidity to the skull.
B) allow for the movement of long bones.
C) are formed when long bones stop growing.
D) are connected by a synovial membrane in adults.
E) is a type of ligament.

Question 36

Figure 40-3
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-3.In which portion of the bone would red blood cell production occur?

A) B
B) C
C) J
D) H
E) I

Question 37

Figure 40-2
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
The type of support illustrated in Figure 40-2 is:

A) a hydrostatic skeleton.
B) an exoskeleton.
C) the integumentary system.
D) a shell.
E) the dermis.

Question 38

Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton?

A) skull
B) vertebral column
C) ribs
D) pelvis
E) sternum

Question 39

Figure 40-2
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Which of the following statements concerning an exoskeleton is false?

A) It is composed of living tissue that grows along with the animal.
B) Although the exoskeleton is rigid, it allows for flexibility.
C) It may act as an anchor to which muscles attach.
D) It is capable of providing protection against predators or pathogens.
E) Animals with exoskeletons must undergo a molting process.

Question 40

Sutures can be classified as __________ joints.

A) synovial
B) immovable
C) slightly movable
D) freely movable
E) cartilaginous

Question 41

Figure 40-4
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-4.Which structure is most directly responsible for stimulating the release of calcium into the cytoplasm of the cell?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

Question 42

Skeletal muscles produce movement by pulling on __________, which attach to bones.

A) tendons
B) ligaments
C) cross bridges
D) articulations
E) sarcomeres

Question 43

Which of the following prevents muscle contraction by regulating the interaction between the myofilaments?

A) the troponin-tropomyosin complex
B) actin
C) actomyosin
D) phosphate
E) myosin

Question 44

The type of tissue forming the covering around muscle fibers is:

A) epithelial tissue.
B) connective tissue.
C) nervous tissue.
D) specialized muscle tissue.
E) synovial fluid.

Question 45

People would take calcium supplements to help them avoid:

A) osteitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteophoresis.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) osteon disease.

Question 46

Figure 40-4
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Calcium ions are commonly stored in the __________ of the muscle cell.

A) axon
B) myosin
C) sarcoplasm
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) T tubules

Question 47

The condition that is characterized by a loss of calcium from the bone is called:

A) osteitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteophoresis.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) osteon disease.

Question 48

A person with a severe calcium deficiency:

A) would have a problem with ATP release for muscle contraction.
B) would have a problem with cross bridge formation.
C) would have a problem with energizing the cocked head of myosin.
D) would have a shorter I band.
E) would have no problems associated with muscle activity.

Question 49

An autoimmune disease in which the synovial membrane thickens and becomes inflamed is called:

A) osteitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) osteon disease.

Question 50

The fluid that provides lubrication for movable joints is called:

A) CS fluid.
B) interstitial fluid.
C) synovial fluid.
D) joint lubricant fluid.
E) plasma.

Question 51

Muscles occur in antagonistic pairs because:

A) they are incapable of working agonistically.
B) actin and myosin filaments can only move in one direction.
C) both contraction and extension would cause an oxygen debt.
D) contraction is voluntary, while relaxation is involuntary.
E) they are only capable of contracting and not pushing.

Question 52

During contraction of your arm muscle:

A) the I band shortens.
B) the H zone shortens.
C) the A band shortens.
D) the I band and the H zone shorten.
E) the I band, the H zone, and the A band all shorten.

Question 53

Figure 40-4
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Which statement about muscle contraction is false?

A) The sliding filament model was developed by Hugh and Andrew Huxley.
B) Acetylcholine released into the synaptic cleft stimulates muscle contraction.
C) During contraction, the muscle length does not change, but the actin and myosin filaments shorten.
D) Once the T tubules are depolarized, they open Ca²⁺ channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E) Cross bridges are formed between myosin and actin during muscle contraction.

Question 54

The organizational unit of skeletal muscle tissue is the:

A) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) transverse tubule.
C) sarcomere.
D) Z line.
E) motor unit.

Question 55

The condition that is characterized by the wearing-down of joints due to insufficient cartilage repair is called:

A) osteitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteophoresis.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) osteon disease.

Question 56

The organization of muscle tissue from a macroscopic level to a microscopic one is as follows:

A) muscle fibers $\rightarrow$ myofibrils $\rightarrow$ myofilaments
B) muscle fibers $\rightarrow$ myofilaments $\rightarrow$ myofibrils.
C) myofibrils $\rightarrow$ muscle fibers $\rightarrow$ myofilaments.
D) myofilaments $\rightarrow$ myofibrils $\rightarrow$ muscle fibers.
E) muscle fibers $\rightarrow$ myofibrils $\rightarrow$ myofilaments.

Question 57

Figure 40-4
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-4.In which part of the cell are calcium ions stored?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

Question 58

Which of the following molecules has an enzymatic site that splits ATP during muscle contraction?

A) troponin
B) myosin
C) actin
D) inositol triphosphate
E) tropomyosin

Question 59

The flight muscles of insects:

A) result in a heat-deficit problem for insects.
B) contain more mitochondria than any known variety of muscle.
C) only contract in direct response to stimulation by nerves.
D) are capable of supporting flight under a wide range of cool, warm, and hot temperatures.
E) can be insulated by feathers, scales, or fur.

Question 60

Figure 40-4
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-4.Which of the following represent the correct sequence for contraction to occur in this muscle cell?

A) nerve stimulus, 4, 5, 3, 2, contraction
B) nerve stimulus, 4, 5, 2, 3, contraction
C) nerve stimulus, 4, 3, 5, 2, contraction
D) nerve stimulus, 5, 3, 2, 1, contraction
E) nerve stimulus, 5, 2, 3, 1, contraction

Question 61

Keratin is a mixture of fats and waxes that inhibits growth of harmful bacteria.
____________________

Question 62

The connective tissue membrane that covers the bone is called the periosteum.
____________________

Question 63

Figure 40-5
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
What event most directly precedes the activity illustrated in Figure 40-5?

A) depolarization
B) an action potential
C) acetylcholine release from a motor neuron
D) release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) release of ADP from the myosin head

Question 64

Which of the following is not a source of energy for muscle contraction?

A) creatine phosphate
B) glucose
C) oxygen
D) glycogen
E) ATP

Question 65

Identify the two main divisions of the vertebrate skeleton and identify the bones that are representative of each division.

Question 66

Figure 40-5
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Accumulation of __________ contributes to muscle fatigue.

A) ATP
B) creatine phosphate
C) glycogen
D) lactic acid
E) carbon monoxide

Question 67

The exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of chitin.
____________________

Question 68

Figure 40-5
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).

-Arrange the events of muscular contraction in chronological order.
1)muscle shortens
2)calcium binds to troponin
3)filaments slide
4)T tubules are depolarized
5)acetylcholine is released
6)ATP molecule is split

A) 4 $\rightarrow$ 5 $\rightarrow$ 2 $\rightarrow$ 1 $\rightarrow$ 3 $\rightarrow$ 6
B) 4 $\rightarrow$ 2 $\rightarrow$ 5 $\rightarrow$ 6 $\rightarrow$ 1 $\rightarrow$ 3
C) 5 $\rightarrow$ 2 $\rightarrow$ 4 $\rightarrow$ 1 $\rightarrow$ 6 $\rightarrow$ 3
D) 6 $\rightarrow$ 1 $\rightarrow$ 5 $\rightarrow$ 4 $\rightarrow$ 3 $\rightarrow$ 2
E) 5 $\rightarrow$ 4 $\rightarrow$ 2 $\rightarrow$ 6 $\rightarrow$ 3 $\rightarrow$ 1

Question 69

The body of a cnidarian is supported by a(n) hydrostatic skeleton.
____________________

Question 70

Sketch and label a cross-section through human skin.Identify two differences that would occur if the skin were exposed to UV radiation.

Question 71

For a bike racer to maintain the lead during the Tour de France, s/he would be relying on:

A) anaerobic metabolism of glucose as the primary energy source.
B) ATP stored in the muscle as the primary energy source.
C) creatine phosphate as the primary energy source.
D) insulin to convert glycogen to glucose for energy.
E) the anaerobic metabolism of lactic acid.

Question 72

Figure 40-5
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Refer to Figure 40-5.The molecules required to bind at the sites labeled 1 and 2 for a cross bridge to form are:

A) Ca²⁺ and myosin.
B) ADP and myosin.
C) myosin and troponin.
D) ATP and Ca²⁺.
E) tropomyosin and O₂.

Question 73

A single, quick contraction of skeletal muscle is called a:

A) simple twitch.
B) tetanus.
C) brief contraction.
D) red fiber contraction.
E) white fiber contraction.

Question 74

Smooth muscle has all of the following characteristics except:

A) being attached to bones via tendons.
B) having sustained contractions.
C) requiring less ATP to maintain a high level of force.
D) contracting slowly.
E) having muscle fibers capable of greater shortening than striated muscle.

Question 75

In muscle contraction, ATP is used to:

A) deliver oxygen during oxygen debt.
B) pump calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C) cause depolarization of the muscle membrane.
D) cause myosin filaments to shorten.
E) release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

Question 76

The deepest layer of the skin is the stratum corneum.
____________________

Question 77

Endoskeletons are shed in the process of ecdysis.
____________________

Question 78

The axial skeleton of vertebrates consists of the bones of the limbs, the pectoral girdle, and most of the pelvic girdle.
____________________

Question 79

A sprinter would have a high proportion of __________, and a marathon runner would have a high proportion of __________.

A) red fibers; white fibers
B) fast-oxidative fibers; slow-oxidative fibers
C) red fibers; fast-oxidative fibers
D) red fibers; slow-oxidative fibers
E) slow-oxidative fibers; slow-oxidative fibers

Question 80

Use a flow diagram to represent the organization of a muscle from the macroscopic level to the microscopic level.