Deck 4: Diagnosis, Assessment, and Study of Mental Disorders

Question 1

Recognizing a large class of frequently observed symptoms describes the approach.

A)prognostic
B)categorical
C)labeling
D)observational

Answer 1

categorical

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a key advantage of providing a diagnosis according to the textbook?

A)Communication in that a wealth of information is conveyed in a single term.
B)Diagnoses provide important stigma to accelerate the study of treatment outcome.
C)Standard rules are provided for defining mental disorders and for seeking the cause of these disorders.
D)Because everyone uses the same system, clinicians can find useful assessment strategies.

Answer 2

Diagnoses provide important stigma to accelerate the study of treatment outcome.

Question 3

Features of a mental disorder according to the DSM-5 include all of the following EXCEPT

A)a group of emotional, cognitive, or behavioral symptoms called a syndrome that occur within a person.
B)symptoms associated with emotional distress, disability, or increased risk of problems.
C)a syndrome that is not simply an expected or culturally sanctioned response to a specific event.
D)symptoms caused by normal developmental changes.

Answer 3

symptoms caused by normal developmental changes.

Question 4

A includes a group of abnormal behaviors for a number of symptoms in addition to distress, significant work or interpersonal problems, or likelihood of future problems.

A)mental disorder
B)diagnosis
C)syndrome
D)all of these

Question 5

Our thoughts, personal and worldviews, emotional expression, and behavior are impacted by our

A)psychosexual orientation.
B)culture.
C)diagnosis.
D)mental disorder.

Question 6

If you were diagnosed with a strange-sounding disease, you would likely seek more information.A benefit of diagnoses is that they help to

A)ease the sense of uniqueness or loneliness people feel when something is wrong.
B)categorize people with a disorder.
C)stigmatize people with the disorder.
D)allow people with a disorder to self-diagnose.

Question 7

Several advantages exist regarding diagnosis of mental disorder.A primary advantage of diagnosis is

A)highly flexible criteria for defining mental disorders.
B)communicating information.
C)labeling patients so you can anticipate what to expect from them.
D)all of these are advantages of diagnosis.

Question 8

Recognition that five of nine main symptoms of depression are present may lead to a(n)

A)psychosocial feature analysis.
B)unsatisfactory conclusion.
C)categorical label.
D)diagnosis.

Question 9

Emile is trying to develop a new way of organizing and thinking about mental disorders.He decides he will have two broad categories that deal with either mood or cognition, and cross those with two other broad categories indicating whether or not the person has dysfunction that is mild or severe.This will create four possible categories for disorders to fall in.Emile is working on a(n) system for mental disorders.

A)assessment
B)classification
C)dimensional
D)cultural

Question 10

Managed care agencies rely on to reimburse clients for mental health services.

A)treatment modality
B)clinicians suggestion
C)diagnostic codes
D)prevalence rates

Question 11

A large class of frequently observed syndromes composed of abnormal behaviors for features that occur in a person are called

A)diagnoses.
B)mental disorders.
C)symptoms.
D)categories.

Question 12

Since Hal only has a few symptoms of depression, a medical model application would

A)consider these symptoms' severity.
B)request a second opinion.
C)not diagnose a disorder.
D)be at a loss.

Question 13

A categorical approach to mental disorder commonly used in the United States and much of the world is the fifth edition of the

A)Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
B)Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Symptoms.
C)Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
D)Statistical Manual of Mental Symptoms.

Question 14

A diagnosis from a categorical perspective is defined by that outline how many and what features of a mental disorder must be present.

A)syndromes
B)symptoms
C)disorders
D)rules

Question 15

A suggestion for which treatment is most effective for a particular disorder is one advantage of

A)diagnoses.
B)research.
C)websites.
D)community mental health centers.

Question 16

When mental health professionals focus on dimensions, they are considering

A)the length and strength of the problem.
B)a continuum.
C)an all or none phenomenon.
D)what category symptoms qualify for.

Question 17

Lidia thinks that mental disorders fall into broad categories.Cherise disagrees, arguing that mental disorders are all quite similar but vary in degree.Lidia takes a(n) approach, while Cherise takes a(n) approach to mental disorders.

A)classification; dimensional
B)dimensional; classification
C)assessment; treatment
D)treatment; assessment

Question 18

Another name for a syndrome is

A)mental disorder.
B)diagnostic criteria.
C)disorders manual.
D)treatment specifics.

Question 19

Arranging mental disorders into broad categories or classes based on similar features is known as

A)diagnosis.
B)classification.
C)evaluation.
D)categorization.

Question 20

Abnormal behavior can be considered a combination of

A)emotion, cognition, and behavior.
B)observable behavior, unobservable thoughts, and resiliency.
C)physical and metaphysical aspects.
D)who we are and what we already know.

Question 21

Kelly is taking an IQ test.The test has a very strict protocol--she only gets 15 minutes for each section of the test, and all the items are presented to her in the same order as they are to any other person taking the test.The scoring is very objective, and Kelly's answers are scored using the same criteria anyone else's answers are scored against. All of these procedures contribute to the test's

A)standardization.
B)validity.
C)reliability.
D)accuracy.

Question 22

Martin wants to establish the construct validity of his new scale, which he believes measures problems with attention in children.The higher the score on his new scale, the more attention problems the respondent should have.Which of the following findings would help support his case?

A)A positive correlation with an existing measure of ADHD.
B)A negative correlation with an existing measure of ADHD.
C)A positive correlation with an existing measure of mood problems.
D)All of these would establish the construct validity of Martin's new scale.

Question 23

A judgment about whether a test or interview has a relationship to other measures of theoretical expectations is called

A)construct validity.
B)consensus approval.
C)this and that validity.
D)construct approval.

Question 24

The most common assessment technique used to solicit a wide range of information about mental disorders is the

A)survey.
B)experiment.
C)interview.
D)assessment review.

Question 25

Interrater reliability is demonstrated when

A)two raters are in high agreement for diagnosis.
B)several observers have a moderate agreement.
C)two or more interviewers both need a second opinion.
D)two observers use identical language and description.

Question 26

An expectation of mental health professionals is that they use assessment measures that are strong.Consistency of scores or responses is known as

A)validity.
B)standardization.
C)reliability.
D)accuracy.

Question 27

A child's diagnosis of conduct disorder should reflect his or her current level of misbehavior.The validity that refers to whether test or interview results relate to important present features or characteristics is known as

A)concurrent validity.
B)predictive validity.
C)content validity.
D)construct validity.

Question 28

If we are evaluating a person's strengths and weaknesses in order to understand the problem at hand and develop a treatment plan, then we are performing a(n)

A)culturally sensitive diagnostic interview.
B)clinical assessment.
C)axis prognosis.
D)standardization.

Question 29

Marnie tells her colleague, "I just developed a new measure for anxiety disorders." Her colleague looks over the items on Marnie's new scale, and says, "But these items don't measure anxiety, they measure mood! Your scale lacks validity!"

A)construct
B)content
C)predictive
D)concurrent

Question 30

The extent of required coverage of items is , and if it can forecast future behavior is .

A)coverage validity; future validity
B)item analysis content; future behavior validity
C)content validity; predictive validity
D)construct validity; predictive consistency

Question 31

Which type of validity refers to how well test or interview items adequately measure various aspects of a variable or diagnosis?

A)Predictive
B)Concurrent
C)Content
D)Construct

Question 32

When test validity is measured, it aims to determine

A)if there is agreement about its purpose.
B)how well it measures what it is supposed to measure.
C)how consistent the scores are.
D)whether it can be directly connected to treatment.

Question 33

A(n) allows an interviewer to ask any question that comes to mind in any order.

A)structured interview
B)unstructured interview
C)case study
D)experimental analysis

Question 34

Jansen has developed a scale to assess childhood anxiety.Critics of the scale say that some items on the scale measure depression, not anxiety.Jansen could do a study establishing the reliability of the scale to address these critics.

A)test-retest
B)interrater
C)construct
D)internal consistency

Question 35

Quentin has a new client, and measures the client's intelligence level using an IQ test at an initial assessment appointment.About six months later, Quentin repeats all the assessments.In doing so, he finds that the IQ test score at the second assessment is very similar to the score from the first assessment.This suggests the IQ test has good reliability.

A)test-retest
B)interrater
C)internal consistency
D)content

Question 36

Administering or conducting assessment measures in the same way for everyone refers to

A)validation.
B)reliability.
C)standardization.
D)diagnosis.

Question 37

Which type of reliability refers to the relationship among test items that measure the same variable?

A)Internal consistency
B)Test-retest
C)Interrater
D)Devalued

Question 38

An assessment has test-retest reliability when its

A)scores are consistent across some period of time.
B)scores are different, which shows bipolar disorder.
C)some scores or subtests are indicative of certain disorders.
D)scores matched precisely the qualifications for exact disorders.

Question 39

How well test or interview items adequately measure various aspect of a variable, construct, or diagnosis is known as

A)construct validity.
B)kind current validity.
C)content validity.
D)predictive validity.

Question 40

The DSM-5 contains a Cultural Formation Interview to help clinicians

A)evaluate the severity of a person's symptoms within his/her cultural norms.
B)assess if the client will be able to form a positive therapeutic alliance outside of his/her culture.
C)gain information about how culture affects a person's symptoms and treatment.
D)determine if a person qualifies for a particular treatment or not.

Question 41

The category of tests that includes sentence completion, drawing tests, ambiguous stimuli identification, and the TAT is called

A)arbitrary testing.
B)projective testing.
C)objective personality testing.
D)subjective patterning.

Question 42

An MMPI-2 interpretation does not rely on a single score but rather a(n) of the person.

A)profile
B)composite
C)IQ
D)personality

Question 43

Gregory took a test that measured a full scale or total score, a verbal score, and the performance score.What he took was a(n)

A)performance and language test.
B)IQ test.
C)TAT.
D)projective measure.

Question 44

Most intelligent tests include multiple to measure specific aspects of cognitive functioning.

A)subscales
B)accesses
C)diagnoses
D)scales

Question 45

Pippa is taking an intelligence test.On the particular part of the test she is working on, the examiner reads her a list of numbers.She has to try to remember them and repeat them back in the order in which they were read.Each list is a little bit longer than the last one.Pippa is working on the subtest.

A)vocabulary
B)similarities
C)digit span
D)mental rotation

Question 46

The most common forms of clinical assessment are

A)projective techniques and the TAT.
B)immersion reflection and symptom recording.
C)interviews and intelligence tests.
D)structured interviews and open interviews.

Question 47

Which of the following represent types of projective personality assessment?

A)MMPI-2 and Structured Clinical Interview
B)Rorschach and Thematic Apperception Test
C)Computerized axial tomography and functional MRI
D)Functional analysis and naturalistic observation

Question 48

The Swiss psychiatrist who experimented with inkblots to diagnose psychological problems was

A)Skinner.
B)Freud.
C)Rorschach.
D)Wechsler.

Question 49

Tests that require mental health professionals to use their skill and judgment to interpret an individual's responses are known as

A)interpretive.
B)projective.
C)standardized.
D)scientific.

Question 50

Because structured diagnostic interviews are , they are most common to settings.

A)short; research
B)short; clinical
C)time-consuming; research
D)time-consuming; clinical

Question 51

A potential problem with questionnaires such as the MMPI-2 is

A)some people might wish to place themselves in a favorable light.
B)some people may wish to fake bad to receive aid.
C)some people may wish to fake bad for sympathy.
D)all of these are potential problems with questionnaires such as the MMPI-2.

Question 52

Assessing a person's needs, personality, and/or conflicts can be done using ambiguous stimuli such as

A)abstract algebraic equations.
B)word associations.
C)inkblots.
D)role-playing.

Question 53

Jess is interviewing a new client.She asks the client whatever questions come to mind so that the interview kind of "flows." There is no planned sequence to her questions, and the content of the questions are different from what she would ask another client.Jess is performing a(n) interview.

A)structured
B)unstructured
C)personality
D)intelligence

Question 54

Barry has been asked to tell stories about what he sees on a series of cards.A mental health professional can learn

A)about various childhoods from these stories.
B)about Barry's personality from these stories.
C)about his ability to tell stories.
D)Barry's aptitude for personality integration.

Question 55

Nina is looking at an inkblot.She focuses on the upper right corner of the card as she describes what she sees in it.She tells the examiner she sees a dog in that part of the inkblot and largely ignores the rest of the inkblot.Which of the following BEST illustrates the content of Nina's response?

A)The fact that she says she sees a dog
B)The fact that she focuses on the upper right corner of the inkblot
C)The fact that she answers the examiner
D)All of these illustrate the content of Nina's response

Question 56

An intelligence test that is "culture free"

A)does not need developing because they are all culture free.
B)would involve arbitrary value systems and biases.
C)has been developed as well as one to measure pure potential.
D)has not yet been developed.

Question 57

Collin is taking an intelligence test.He is shown an image and has to select which of four images would match that if it were rotated 90 degrees.Collin is probably taking items on the subscale as he answers these types of questions.

A)emotional
B)performance
C)verbal
D)physical

Question 58

A strength of the MMPI-2 is that it

A)obtains a profile by compiling many scores.
B)standardized institutional subjects.
C)has a different profile for everyone who takes it.
D)uses statistics to minimize criticisms.

Question 59

Ratings and from structured diagnostic interviews are generally reliable across raters, and have high content validity because they are based on specific criteria.

A)diagnoses
B)validity
C)reliability
D)assessment

Question 60

According to the textbook, which is likely the most common form of clinical assessment after the interview?

A)Intelligence test
B)Personality inventory
C)Projective personality measure
D)Biological assessment

Question 61

Indirect measures of brain and physical function are referred to as

A)biological assessment.
B)psychophysiological assessment.
C)neurophysiological assessment.
D)neuropsychological assessment.

Question 62

A common type of physiological assessment that measures heart rate is a(n)

A)galvanic skin conductor.
B)electroencephalogram.
C)electrocardiogram.
D)neurochemical assessment.

Question 63

A person's physiological or cognitive characteristics that may help the therapist in understanding problems and help to determine treatment are

A)preliminary variables.
B)organismic variables.
C)conditional variables.
D)behavioral variables.

Question 64

Between or among brain-imaging techniques to reveal structural abnormalities only, which provides the highest- quality images without radiation?

A)CT
B)Computerized Axial Tomography
C)MRI
D)PET

Question 65

One example of an assessment technique that can measure specific central nervous system change is

A)brain imaging.
B)self-monitoring.
C)controlled observation.
D)functional analysis.

Question 66

Various physical measures of bodily changes associated with mental conditions are

A)psychophysiological assessments.
B)neurophysiological analyses.
C)bodily disruption indices.
D)common sense connections.

Question 67

According to the textbook, types of psychophysiological assessments include all of the following EXCEPT

A)electroencephalogram.
B)galvanic skin conductance.
C)positron emission tomography.
D)electrocardiogram.

Question 68

When a client observes and records his or her own behaviors, emotions, and thoughts, the assessment form known as is being used.

A)naturalistic observation
B)controlled observation
C)organismic monitoring
D)self-monitoring

Question 69

When a client is involved in tests that approximate situations people face in real life and that may elicit a certain problem behavior, he/she is participating in a

A)directed observation.
B)controlled observation.
C)consensual observation.
D)naturalistic observation.

Question 70

When a client is directly observed in his/her natural environment, he/she is participating in a(n)

A)directed observation.
B)experiment.
C)consensual observation.
D)naturalistic observation.

Question 71

The assessment that involves evaluating bodily changes possibly associated with certain mental conditions is

A)psychological.
B)physiological.
C)neurochemical.
D)psychophysiological.

Question 72

Sam is undergoing an assessment technique.He is having electrodes placed at various locations on his scalp so the electrical lead to 80 in various brain areas can be assessed.Sam is undergoing a(n)

A)electrocardiogram.
B)electroencephalogram.
C)neuropsychological assessment.
D)neurochemical assessment.

Question 73

Lorrie's therapist has been performing a functional analysis of her behavior that focuses on antecedents and consequences.These observations are part of a(n)

A)observational learning program.
B)behavioral assessment.
C)functional modification.
D)operant conditioning program.

Question 74

The method of evaluating brain functioning via one's performance on standardized tests that indicate brain behavior relationships is

A)biopsychosocial assessment.
B)neuropsychological assessment.
C)neurophysiological assessment.
D)biophysiological assessment.

Question 75

The main biological assessment technique that measures metabolites and their relationship to neurotransmitter levels is

A)brain chemical analysis.
B)neurochemical assessment.
C)neurobiological homeostasis.
D)neuroendocrine psychopharmacology.

Question 76

Julie has been administered one or more standardized tests to evaluate a specific area of brain functioning.This is known as

A)local testing.
B)specific testing.
C)focal testing.
D)retention testing.

Question 77

When imaging techniques transcend structure and reveal brain activity, the methods used are

A)CT and MRI.
B)MRI and X-ray.
C)EEG and EKG.
D)fMRI and PET.

Question 78

The two primary methods of indirect brain function assessment are the

A)broad range and specific area.
B)regional mapping and collective function.
C)subjective and objective interpretations.
D)subliminal and conscious awareness measures.

Question 79

The purpose of assessment is to measure overt behaviors or responses shown by a person.

A)clinical
B)behavioral
C)observational
D)consequences

Question 80

Behavioral assessment often involves a functional analysis of behavior.Which of the following is an example of an antecedent to behavior in such an analysis?

A)Driving on the freeway always prompts a panic attack for Elliot.
B)Having a panic attack helps Janae avoid stressful situations.
C)Veronica can get attention if she acts depressed.
D)All of these are examples of antecedents to behavior.