Deck 23: Principles of Evolution

Question 1

The word evolution , as used in biology, literally means

A) natural selection.
B) genetic drift.
C) divergence.
D) genetic change.
E) mutation.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The number and kinds of genes inherited by a population is called the

A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) gene pool.
D) genetic drift.
E) genetic variation.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The asteroid impact of about 65 million years ago led to the extinction of

A) sequoia trees.
B) giant redwood trees.
C) dinosaurs and some other life forms.
D) giant squid.
E) undersea creatures similar to the "Loch Ness Monster."

Answer 3

C

Question 4

After his return to England, Darwin pondered which of the following questions most heavily?

A) What could explain the great numbers and variety of species?
B) Does the fossil evidence support uniformitarianism?
C) Are the extinct and living armadillos the same species?
D) Did Galápagos mockinbirds have a common mainland ancestor?
E) Will natural selection work in England?

Question 5

Members of a population have similar

A) phenotypes.
B) morphological traits.
C) physiological traits.
D) behavioral traits.
E) all of these

Question 6

The large-scale patterns, trends, and rates of change among groups of species is

A) microevolution.
B) macroevolution.
C) species variation.
D) population shift.
E) population drift.

Question 7

Darwin spent five years doing research while sailing aboard the

A) H.M.S. Pinafore.
B) H.M.S. Beagle.
C) H.M.S. Hood.
D) H.M.S. Constitution.
E) H.M.S. Howe.

Question 8

Charles Darwin

A) lived in New England..
B) studied to become a doctor.
C) followed his avocation as a sailor.
D) is identified with the concept of natural selection.
E) sailed on the H.M.S. Bassett.

Question 9

New variations of genes may be produced by all of the following EXCEPT

A) immigration.
B) mutation.
C) crossing over.
D) sexual reproduction.
E) fission.

Question 10

Which is a group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area?

A) individual
B) species
C) population
D) polyploid
E) gene pool

Question 11

Thomas Malthus proposed that

A) the food supply multiplied faster than the population.
B) the population tended to outgrow its resources.
C) the food supply and population multiplied at the same rate.
D) artificial selection was the key to evolution.
E) natural selection was the key to evolution.

Question 12

Modern humans evolved approximately ____ years ago.

A) 65 million
B) 20 million
C) 1 million
D) 500,000
E) 100,000

Question 13

Macroevolution is change among

A) groups of species.
B) individuals of one species.
C) individuals of several species.
D) groups of populations.
E) groups of individuals of several populations.

Question 14

The exact same genotype is seen only in

A) identical twins.
B) members of a family.
C) non-identical twins.
D) members of a population.
E) brothers and sisters of different ages.

Question 15

Natural selection operates to produce changes in

A) individuals.
B) populations.
C) races.
D) phyla.
E) animals only.

Question 16

The history of life on earth spans nearly

A) 100,000 years.
B) 500,000 years.
C) 100 million years
D) 1 billion years.
E) 4 billion years.

Question 17

Which of the following evolve?

A) populations
B) genera
C) kingdoms
D) populations and genera
E) genera and kingdoms

Question 18

Darwin's observations led to his proposal that evolution occurred due to

A) random chance.
B) climatic changes.
C) natural selection.
D) migration.
E) interaction of species.

Question 19

Microevolution is the result of all of the following EXCEPT

A) chance variation.
B) change in gene frequency.
C) mutation.
D) natural selection.
E) large scale patterns or trends.

Question 20

Our ancestors most likely came from

A) southern Africa.
B) Asia.
C) Chile.
D) the Yukon.
E) Australia.

Question 21

The introduction of a small population onto an island that results in a different gene pool from the original source is explained by

A) the Hardy-Weinberg law.
B) genetic drift.
C) the bottleneck effect.
D) the founder effect.
E) the effect of genetic isolation.

Question 22

All of the following are components of Darwin's principle of natural selection EXCEPT that

A) new alleles are constantly produced through mutation.
B) populations exhibit great variation.
C) organisms produce more offspring than can be sustained by the environment.
D) over time, adaptive phenotypes increase in frequency within a population.
E) variation can be inherited.

Question 23

What accounts for the fact that polydactylism is prevalent and Tay-Sachs disease virtually absent in one human population in the United States, while Tay-Sachs disease is prevalent and polydactylism virtually absent in another?

A) Natural selection has promoted these differences since humans live in many different environments.
B) Mutation rates differ between different loci.
C) There is little gene flow between the two populations.
D) The populations are small, and therefore genetic drift is a major factor in the determination of allele frequencies.
E) Genetics is an unpredictable science.

Question 24

An insect that exhibits resistance to a pesticide

A) developed the resistance in response to the pesticide.
B) mutated when exposed to the pesticide.
C) inherited genes that made it resistant to the pesticide.
D) drifted from an adjacent field.
E) received resistance genes during mating.

Question 25

Successful mating may occur only between members of the same

A) family.
B) order.
C) species.
D) kingdom.
E) genus.

Question 26

The process that probably accounts for most changes in the mix of alleles in a gene pool is

A) cloning.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) natural selection.
E) genetic drift.

Question 27

The influence of genetic drift on allele frequencies increases as

A) gene flow increases.
B) population size decreases.
C) mutation rate decreases.
D) the number of heterozygous loci increases.
E) population size increases.

Question 28

Which of the following statements is false?

A) some mutations may be beneficial
B) some mutations may be harmful
C) some mutations may be neutral
D) mutations are an important part of evolution
E) all mutations are harmful

Question 29

When DDT was first introduced, insects were very susceptible to it. The development of resistance to DDT by insects was the result of

A) special creation.
B) natural selection of forms that expressed genes for resistance.
C) the high biotic potential of insects.
D) a naturally occurring example of inheritance of acquired characteristics.
E) mutation induced by DDT.

Question 30

The only taxonomic category in which evolution can occur is the

A) genus.
B) species.
C) kingdom.
D) family.
E) class.

Question 31

Introduction of previously nonexistent genes into a population may be accomplished by

A) nonrandom mating.
B) mutation.
C) sexual recombination.
D) the founder effect.
E) birth.

Question 32

Although there are as many starlings in North America as there are in Europe, genetic variability in the North American population is reduced relative to that in Europe because

A) there are more environments in Europe.
B) the North American population is derived from a small founder population.
C) there is more gene flow in Europe.
D) there is less mutation in North America.
E) mutation is operating.

Question 33

The evolutionary force that operates primarily through chance is

A) natural selection.
B) genetic drift.
C) isolation.
D) mating preference.
E) pregnancy.

Question 34

Organisms "X" and "Y" are suspected to be the same species. Which of the following will provide the ultimate proof?

A) interbreeding
B) anatomy
C) physiology
D) ecology
E) behavior

Question 35

The trait of connected earlobes is considered a

A) beneficial trait.
B) harmful trait.
C) neutral trait.
D) dominant trait.
E) significant trait.

Question 36

New alleles arise by

A) mutation.
B) migration.
C) genetic drift.
D) random mating.
E) independent assortment.

Question 37

New alleles that appear by mutation

A) are inherently disadvantageous to their bearers.
B) are seldom advantageous or disadvantageous in themselves.
C) either have or lack survival value only in the context of their environment.
D) are seldom advantageous or disadvantageous in themselves and either have or lack survival value only in the context of their environment.
E) are inherently disadvantageous to their bearers and are seldom advantageous or disadvantageous in themselves.

Question 38

The trend in which organisms come to have characteristics that suit them to conditions in a particular environment is called

A) genetic drift.
B) adaptation.
C) mutation.
D) isolation.
E) divergence.

Question 39

One part of Darwin's theory is that individuals with certain traits have an increased competitive edge. The source of these traits in individuals is due to

A) adaptation to the stress.
B) development over a lifetime.
C) inheritance from birth.
D) mutation after birth.
E) all of these.

Question 40

Natural selection is best summarized as

A) mutation in various species.
B) independent assortment of genes during meiosis.
C) the difference in survival and reproduction in a population.
D) changes in chromosome number or structure.
E) the adaptation of varying individuals to changes in the environment.

Question 41

Fossils found in the lowest geological strata are generally the most

A) advanced.
B) complex.
C) primitive.
D) widespread.
E) specialized.

Question 42

The layering of sedimentary deposits is called

A) stratification.
B) saponification.
C) fossilization.
D) petrifaction.
E) putrefaction.

Question 43

The movement of plates of the Earth's crust is

A) plate tectonics.
B) plate dynamics.
C) plate mechanics.
D) plate kinetics.
E) plate motility.

Question 44

Reproductive isolation often occurs due to

A) geographic separation.
B) species incompatibility.
C) mutation.
D) genetic drift.
E) natural selection.

Question 45

Complete reproductive isolation is evidence that what has occurred?

A) extinction
B) speciation
C) polyploidy
D) hybridization
E) gene flow

Question 46

Two individuals are members of the same species if they

A) possess the same number of chromosomes.
B) breed at the same time.
C) are phenotypically indistinguishable.
D) can mate and produce fertile offspring.
E) look alike.

Question 47

The term reproductive isolation mechanism refers to

A) specific areas where males compete or display for females.
B) the process by which sexual selection evolves within a population.
C) a blockage of gene flow between populations.
D) the inability of a species to continue reproduction.
E) legal limits to procreation.

Question 48

The fossil record is biased because

A) most species we have fossils for lived on land or in shallow seas that became part of the continents.
B) have very few fossils from sediments beneath the ocean even though it covers three fourths of the earth.
C) most fossils come from the Northern Hemisphere because most geologists have lived and worked there.
D) both most species we have fossils for lived on land or in shallow seas that became part of the continents and most fossils come from the Northern Hemisphere because most geologists have lived and worked there..
E) most species we have fossils for lived on land or in shallow seas that became part of the continents, have very few fossils from sediments beneath the ocean even though it covers three fourths of the earth, and most fossils come from the Northern Hemisphere because most geologists have lived and worked there.

Question 49

The fossil record is incomplete because

A) very few organisms were preserved as fossils.
B) organisms tend to decay before becoming a fossil.
C) animals with hard parts are preserved more easily.
D) geological processes may destroy fossils.
E) all of these

Question 50

The age of volcanic rocks is determined by

A) fossil identification.
B) chemical analysis.
C) radiometric dating.
D) analysis of surrounding minerals.
E) hardness testing.

Question 51

Divergence may lead to

A) genetic drift.
B) speciation.
C) balanced polymorphism.
D) gene flow.
E) genetic equilibrium.

Question 52

Which of the following organisms would you most likely expect to find preserved as a fossil?

A) a jellyfish
B) a shelled arthropod such as a trilobite
C) an earthworm
D) a nematode
E) a protozoan

Question 53

The study of comparative morphology has revealed the conservative nature of the genes responsible for

A) food procurement.
B) reproductive behavior.
C) embryonic development.
D) size.
E) mating behavior.

Question 54

Early in the Earth's history, there was a massive "supercontinent" known as

A) Gondwana.
B) Pangea.
C) Botswana.
D) Pellagra.
E) Panagra.

Question 55

Which of the following habitats is most likely to be rich in fossils?

A) eroding hillsides
B) deserts
C) polar ice caps
D) the bed of a former shallow sea
E) rocky plateau

Question 56

The buildup of genetic differences between isolated populations is

A) gene flow.
B) genetic equilibrium.
C) divergence.
D) adaptation.
E) natural selection.

Question 57

The study of the worldwide distribution of plants and animals is called

A) paleontology.
B) microevolution.
C) comparative morphology.
D) biogeography.
E) phylogeny.

Question 58

Incompatibilities between the developing embryo and the maternal organism that cause the embryo to abort spontaneously may prevent individuals of different populations from producing fertile offspring. Such differences may be an example of

A) isolating mechanisms.
B) allele frequencies.
C) mutations.
D) founder effects.
E) gene flow.

Question 59

Fossils would include

A) skeletons.
B) shells.
C) seeds.
D) tracks.
E) all of these.

Question 60

A species is composed of

A) related organisms.
B) a group of reproductive females.
C) populations that have the potential to interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
D) organisms located in the same habitat.
E) all males and females in the same geographical range with the same ecological requirements.

Question 61

Classification schemes will include

A) species.
B) genus.
C) family.
D) phylum.
E) all of these.

Question 62

Phylogenetic relationships, when determined solely by the study of comparative morphology, may be incorrect due to

A) morphological divergence.
B) convergence.
C) adaptive radiation.
D) extinction.
E) observer error.

Question 63

Which ancestors of modern humans migrated out of Africa to populate the rest of the world?

A) Homo habilis
B) Homo erectus
C) Neanderthals
D) Cro Magnon
E) Homo sapiens

Question 64

Although birds, fish, mammals, reptiles and amphibians are different, evidence of their evolutionary links is provided by

A) chemical analysis.
B) comparison of adult body forms.
C) comparison of ways in which their embryos develop.
D) time of gestation.
E) comparing life expectancies.

Question 65

Explanations for mass extinction include all of the following EXCEPT

A) collisions between the earth and other bodies in the solar system.
B) continental movements.
C) adaptive radiation of new predator species in many lineages.
D) alterations in sea level.
E) habitat destruction.

Question 66

Which of the following is most inclusive?

A) family
B) phylum
C) species
D) class
E) order

Question 67

Which serve as examples of convergence?

A) dolphins and tuna
B) panthers and tigers
C) apes and monkeys
D) sharks, skates, and rays
E) mice, rats, and gerbils

Question 68

Comparisons of protein similarity between species can reveal the degree of genetic kinship because

A) the number of protein variations is limited.
B) specific amino acids are dictated by known nucleotide sequences in DNA.
C) gel electrophoresis converts proteins to nucleotides.
D) protein can be hybridized with DNA.
E) DNA is made by directions stored in proteins.

Question 69

Background extinction is a measure of

A) the rate of species turnover at the end of geological eras.
B) the number of species that suffer extinction at the beginning of geological eras.
C) the steady rate of species turnover within a lineage throughout most of their evolutionary history.
D) the lowest rate of species turnover within a lineage observed within a geological era.
E) the animals that appear in the dense forest.

Question 70

The wings of a bird and the wings of a butterfly are ____ and show morphological ____.

A) homologous; convergence
B) analogous; convergence
C) homologous; divergence
D) analogous; divergence
E) similar; mutation

Question 71

Which of the following is a grouping of related genera?

A) family
B) phylum
C) species
D) class
E) order

Question 72

All of the following are useful indicators of evolutionary relationships EXCEPT

A) base sequences in DNA.
B) amino acid sequences in a protein.
C) similar ecological requirements.
D) similar embryonic development.
E) similar polypeptides.

Question 73

The wings of bats and birds and the flippers of porpoises are

A) analogous structures.
B) totally unrelated.
C) functionally different.
D) homologous structures.
E) similar by chance.

Question 74

The correct descending order of classification is

A) genus >> species >> order >> kingdom >> phylum >> class >> family.
B) class >> order >> kingdom >> phylum >> species >> genus >> family.
C) class >> kingdom >> order >> phylum >> genus >> species >> family.
D) kingdom >> phylum >> class >> order >> family >> genus >> species.
E) phylum >> kingdom >> class >> order >> family >> genus >> species.

Question 75

When new species of a lineage move into a wide range of habitats during bursts of microevolution, it is referred to as

A) uniformitarianism.
B) gradualism.
C) convergence.
D) adaptive radiation.
E) special creation.

Question 76

The convergence in external morphology of dolphins and tuna is attributed to

A) reduced genetic variability in these groups.
B) selection pressures that are common to these groups.
C) reproductive isolation of these groups.
D) identical genes in all three groups.
E) genetic mutation.

Question 77

Which of the following has been used to measure more precisely the relatedness of primates?

A) hemoglobin
B) blood type
C) family trees
D) convergence
E) fossils

Question 78

Which of the following groups represents the MOST closely related organisms?

A) kingdoms
B) species
C) orders
D) genera
E) taxa

Question 79

Structures that are no longer needed but remain within the body are called

A) vestigial structures.
B) nonuseful structures.
C) ancient structures.
D) defunct structures.
E) retrostructures.

Question 80

When comparing the gene coding for cytochrome c in several species, it was noted that humans and chimpanzees share the identical amino acid sequence with a change in only one location. This means that

A) humans and chimpanzees can mate and produce viable offspring.
B) humans evolved from chimpanzees.
C) over time, chimpanzees will eventually evolve into primitive humans.
D) humans and chimpanzees are closely related in evolutionary time.
E) there is nothing particularly informative about this discovery.